The Evangelical Universalist Forum

How Would You Deal With This Verse

Are you suggesting that God does NOT love the others? If so, how could the apostle John affirm that God loved THE WORLD of people, as written in John 3:16?

In the sense of love less [than before, or than others] or removing favors, or bringing judgements or by use of metonymy, etc, perhaps. As per: … -psalm-55/

Scripture says God is love, but never AFAIK that He is hate, wrath, or anger. Though He may use such to correct His wayward creatures.

Let’s say because person A loved person B he performed a past completed act of love toward person B. Does that require person A does not hate what person B is as a sinner & lover of darkness? Or that person A would not thereafter hate person B if person B rejects that act of love & willfully chooses to continually hate & reject person A?

Jesus asked His disciples to love those who hated and persecuted them:

Yes. I suppose the following passages refer to a special love only those who love & obey Christ obtain. Others are not loved by God in this way:

Jn. 14:21 He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him. 22Judas saith unto him, not Iscariot, Lord, how is it that thou wilt manifest thyself unto us, and not unto the world? 23Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.

John 16:27
For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved Me and have believed that I came from God.

and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him.

Well maybe the difference is the manifestation of Jesus/God possibly through the Holy Spirit to the believer but not to the unbeliever?