The Evangelical Universalist Forum

Ineffable name doctrine

With the exception of the WEB, all popular Bibles seem to say LORD instead of God’s name (which some people contend is Yahweh, others contend is Jehovah) thousands of times in the OT. But is the ineffable name doctrine biblical? I don’t think so.

Here’s a short article on it.

Citing midrash that says a person could only be convicted of blasphemy if he uttered the divine name, the author of the article argues that Jesus must uttered the divine name at his sanhedrin trial.

The ESV translates Matthew 26:64 as:

Jesus said to him, “You have said so. But I tell you, from now on you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

When Jesus is quoted here as saying “Power”, perhaps he actually said the divine name. What do you think?

Didn’t he normally say “My Father” and they claimed that was blasphemy because he claimed God was his Father.

True, but keep in mind that things may have been tweaked from the autographs to the manuscripts we have today out of propriety. John 10:25 WEB says

Jesus answered them, "I told you, and you don’t believe. The works that I do in my Father’s name, these testify about me.

Perhaps Jesus said his Father’s name here.