Not so, Ran: May I have feedback on my CU drafts?
You’re limiting the word “worship” to that which belongs to Deity only, when Scripture puts no such limitation on it. What would be illogical is if God demanded that we worship AS GOD a being who is NOT GOD. But he doesn’t. The Father demands that we worship him alone as “the only true God,” and that we worship his Son (not as the only true God but) as the one to whom he has given all authority in heaven and on earth, and made Lord over all. Again, in 1 Chron 29:20 we are told that the people of Israel worshipped Yahweh and the king of Israel. Did God strike them down for this? Nope; later on we find them rejoicing. What they did was completely appropriate. Worship is only wrong when it’s misplaced; however, in this case it wasn’t misplaced. Now, had they worshipped the king AS Yahweh, it would have been idolatry, and God would have undoubtedly made sure that his people learned not to do that ever again. But what they were doing was not idolatry. But according to your reasoning, someone should have interrupted them and yelled out in protest, “Stop worshipping and serving the creature instead of the Creator you irreverent pagans!”
In Rev 3:9, Jesus tells the people in the church in Philadelphia, “Behold, I will make those of the synagogue of satan who say they are Jews and are not, but lie - behold, I will make them come and bow down (proskuneō) before your feet…” This is the same exact word rendered “worship” or “worshiped” in Matt 2:2, 8, 11; 14:33; 15:25; 18:26; 28:9, 17 (etc). So does this mean that Jesus is saying these believers are all part of the “Godhead?” Or is he saying he was going to make these “false Jews” mistakenly worship the Philadelphian believers as God, when they really weren’t? No; neither is the case. Jesus simply had a better handle on the word “worship” than many Christians do today.
Ran, did you know that the angels of God were not commanded to worship the “firstborn Son” until he was “brought into the world?” Did you know that Jesus BECAME “superior to the angels,” and that he “INHERITED a more excellent name than theirs?” That’s what Hebrews 1:4-6 says. But how could this be if the Son had pre-existed from all eternity? How do you account for this? But that’s not all; Christ didn’t even sit down “at the right hand of the Majesty on high” until “AFTER” he had made purification for sins. But this shouldn’t surprise us; we read of only one divine person sitting on one throne in Heaven in Isaiah 6. Where was the Son of God? According to Scripture, there was no Son of God yet (except in God’s foreknowledge and predestined plan); Jesus didn’t exist yet when Isaiah received this vision. He hadn’t been “begotten” (fathered) yet (Heb 1:5). The “today” in which this was prophesied to take place hadn’t yet arrived. But when Stephen was given a glimpse of the throne room of Heaven right before he died, did he see only one person as Isaiah did? Nope; he saw both God (i.e., the “Ancient of Days” from Daniel’s vision) and the “Son of Man standing at his right hand” (Acts 7:56).
Yeah, that’s what Paul believed, too: “There is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.”
Or would it have been more accurate for Paul to have written: “There is one God: the Father, Son and Holy Spirit”?
As much as I’d like to go on, I need to get some dinner.