Actually, it DOES… “by/to death let him come to an end” — come to an end is a euphemism = to die. Have a look at the Greek of Ex 21:14, 15, 17 — argue with that! These were the ordinances given BY GOD to Moses.
WRONG again… there is NO definite article.
Clearly, you’re NOT reading with full understanding the context of Mounce… the imperative is understood by the likes of words like surely or must and indicative of an action/judgement to be meted in accord with said commandment. But if that’s not enough let’s just let Mounce speak for himself on this very verse and see IF he says what you’re saying…
Mt 15:4 MOUNCE For God said, ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and, ‘Whoever speaks evil of his father or mother must be put to death.’
…ooops no, I didn’t think so.
Again you are simply running away from dealing with your well-publicised prior position of saying Moses was WRONG and misrepresented Yahweh in declaring He said… “And he who curses his father or his mother shall surely be put to death.” You are on record on this board numerous times as saying God said no such thing and that Moses was WRONG and misrepresented God.
And yet now come to Jesus DIRECTLY quoting Moses then apparently Jesus is not wrong but simply mistranslated… go figure?? The reason you have NEVER claimed Moses was mistranslated (if you were consistent and actually believed that) is BECAUSE you have believed the text as it simply reads, i.e., speaking of someone losing their life for the sin of cursing their father or mother — a penalty you have claimed (wrongly) God said no such thing about. Jesus directly quotes Moses who directly quotes God, period!
Anybody who has been around here for a while KNOWS (regardless of whether they agree with me or not) what you have maintained on this issue and KNOWS that what I’ve pointed out is 100% CORRECT… you are simply attempting to change horses because your interpretation has been found wanting.