
Look at the meaning Alex. It is ‘saying’ what the author is meaning in his message. Whether parable, apocryphal prophecy, historical narrative – whatever the genre – there will always be stylistic elements, but the message, the meaning is what the author is saying with those elements.
So let me ask you: what do you think the author is saying in contrast to Israel’s offspring that shall remain as does the new heaven/earth, by saying in the imagery of the LORD slaying by sword and coming with fire, that those who rebelled and were slain, that their worms will not die, and their fires will not be quenched?
And what did Jesus mean by quoting this prophecy in explanation of the great lengths we should go to in order to never enter hell, and in so doing affirms that its meaning is abundantly clear to the hearer?

And think about what such a lack of confidence would do to the rest of your Bible reading.
E.g. Isaiah 65:19 – the new Jerusalem is apocalyptic, but will you doubt therefore that we can take literally that all mourning will cease for them who enter that city?
Or take Isaiah 65:25 – the wolf and the lamb imagery we may not interpret literalistically, but do you for that reason doubt that this passage clearly teaches that there will be a literal peace and a ceasing of conflict in the new heaven/earth?

Look at the meaning Alex. It is ‘saying’ what the author is meaning in his message. Whether parable, apocryphal prophecy, historical narrative – whatever the genre – there will always be stylistic elements, but the message, the meaning is what the author is saying with those elements.
Sure, I agree with that.

So let me ask you: what do you think the author is saying in contrast to Israel’s offspring that shall remain as does the new heaven/earth, by saying in the imagery of the LORD slaying by sword and coming with fire, that those who rebelled and were slain, that their worms will not die, and their fires will not be quenched?
Either that it’s the death of the Pauline “old man” (e.g. Romans 6:6; Ephesians 2:15; 4:22-24; and Colossians 3:9-11) or it’s simply saying that some will be judged and go to hell, a place of extraordinary pain, more severe than you can imagine.

And what did Jesus mean by quoting this prophecy in explanation of the great lengths we should go to in order to never enter hell, and in so doing affirms that its meaning is abundantly clear to the hearer?
Given hell is a place of extraordinary pain, more severe than you can imagine, it’s best to be reconciled now.

And think about what such a lack of confidence would do to the rest of your Bible reading.
I’m very confident in the Bible, with the Holy Spirit’s guidance, it’s the best source for growing in understanding, obedience & love of God, what He has done, what He is doing and what He will do.

E.g. Isaiah 65:19 – the new Jerusalem is apocalyptic, but will you doubt therefore that we can take literally that all mourning will cease for them who enter that city?
No, I think the mourning will cease as God, over time, reconciles all things to Himself.

Or take Isaiah 65:25 – the wolf and the lamb imagery we may not interpret literalistically, but do you for that reason doubt that this passage clearly teaches that there will be a literal peace and a ceasing of conflict in the new heaven/earth?
No, I think there will definitely be complete peace everywhere when God has finished reconciling all things to Himself. Whilst Hell exists there can’t be literal peace in any meaningful sense. e.g. 90% of all humans screaming outside the open city gates…

With all respect, I think you’ve contradicting yourself here Alex, and are reading the Bible inconsistently according to your own ‘best practice’.
You’ve just conceded that you read a literal meaning from the saying of both Isaiah 65:19 and Isaiah 65:25, even though, as you’ve conceded, the verses contain apocalyptic elements that you don’t interpret literalistically.
In your words regarding Isaiah 65:19, “mourning WILL cease” in regard to all things (literal interpretation), even though you don’t take that this will actually occur in the actual city of Jerusalem literalistically. Again, in your own words regarding Isaiah 65:25, “there will definitely be complete peace everywhere” (literal interpretation), even though you don’t take that this will occur by wolves actually grazing grass with lambs on mount Zion itself literalistically.
But about Isaiah 66:24 and Mark 9:48 you’ve said “This passage is full of hyperbole … and imagery … so why should I see the “worm does not die” as [literal]?”
This is of course completely inconsistent not only to what you’ve said here about other verses, but to how I note you read the Bible usually, as I do. There is always a literal meaning for us (hermeneutics). You cannot dismiss it by avoiding a literal interpretation. But you seem to be content to ‘break the rules’ of reading here, in this circumstance, which seems like a blind-spot exception your making in this case, whether aware of it and doing it deliberately, or actually unaware of how inconsistent your reading here is in contrast to what you know to be otherwise ‘best practice’ reading.
But whether you like it or not it does have a literal meaning for us. The question what is it.
Now you have commented on what you ‘think the meaning’ might be. But before we go to the meaning for us (hermeneutics), you need to first work out what is the meaning to Isaiah and the hearers (Exegesis).
And before you work out the exegesis, you need to read the actual immediate text (comprehension). And before that for us comes translation.
So let’s just go back to the beginning of all this (comprehension):
- What do you read as the actual immediate meaning of the text, “their worm shall not die?” (You need to do that first, comprehension, before you can move on to the second step, which is, Consequently what was Isaiah’s intended message to his hearers, the recipients whose understanding came from comprehending that sentence in context of the passage).
(And also for clarity can I ask, can you confirm that you do not entertain the notion, contrary to Isaiah, that their worm MIGHT or WOULD in fact die, despite this prophecy?)
- And what do you read as the actual immediate meaning of the text, “their fire shall not be quenched?” (Let’s get this far first, comprehension, before we move to second step, exegesis, which in turn precedes hermeneutics).
(And also for my own clarity, can you confirm that you do not entertain the notion, again contrary to what is written here, that their fires MIGHT or WOULD in fact be quenched, despite this prophecy?)
I have read the entire comment, however, I will only make a brief comment, because to make any real progress on this, I think we would need a face-to-face meeting and a big white board
Like you, I’m trying to look at all these passages Christologically and in light of the resurrection. Therefore, we both say, contrary to what is written here, that the death would NOT be everlasting.
I simply go one step further and say the suffering would NOT be everlasting, mainly because of the Cross, God’s revealed character and His promises to reconcile all creation to Himself.

No we definitely don’t both say, “contrary to what is written here, the death would not be everlasting.” I definitely don’t say that! And here’s why:
What I’m getting at Alex in my previous comment is that there appears to be a fundamental break down in you’re exegesis, so the your hermeneutic has gone off track, and it could be because you’re missing the ‘comprehension’ step after reading all together?
The proper process needs to be: 1. reading --> 2. comprehension --> 3. exegesis --> 4. hermeneutic --> 5. homiletic
reading =
The phrase in Isaiah 66:24 = “…the dead bodies of the men who have rebelled against me… their worm shall not die, their fire shall not be quenched…”comprehension =
In Isaiah 66:24, it is written that the death of those rebels will be followed by the usual process for their dead remains: destruction. One the one hand their destruction will be as usual completed by worms (internally) and fire (externally).However in Isaiah 66:24, there will also be something very unusual about the process of destruction of their dead bodies, since we would usually expect corpses to undergo a finite process of destruction of their remains, since on the one hand their internal destruction would be completed by worms who would eventually run out of remains on which to feed, and die; and secondly on the other hand their external destruction would be completed by the burning of their remains, after which, their fire, having consumed all it’s fuel, would either go out by itself, or be quenched.
But here these rebels, after death, although they will indeed undergo destruction by both worms and fire, will however have worms that never die, and will have fires that burn upon them without ever being put out.

And…
- exegesis =
This phrase Isaiah 66:24 speaks clearly of a ‘destruction’ of these rebels whereby their worms will live forever on their remains, and the fire will have fuel forever as is burns without ceasing upon them. As such this phrase speaks clearly and inescapably of an ‘eternal’ destruction of those dead rebels slain by the LORD who here in context are excluded from the new heaven and the new earth.The clear use of the personal pronoun ‘their’ applied to both ‘their worms’ and ‘their fires’ gives no room for escaping the meaning that this ongoing process of destruction will apply to every individual rebel in within this subset of humanity. For it does not say ‘the’ worm or ‘the’ fire, but ‘their’ worm will not die and ‘their’ fire will not be quenched.
The negative tense (i.e. worms will ‘not’ die, instead of alternatively, their worm will go on ‘living’; and their fire will ‘not’ be quenched, instead of alternatively, their fire will ‘keep’ on burning), is an emphatic denial that there will be an end to this process. It is phrased negatively, so as to say ‘their will be no end’. In other words, rather than simply or even merely teaching ‘destruction forever’ for the wicked, this verse is also, as well as doing that indirectly, but also directly it is a strong and clear declaration against the possibility that the destruction of the wicked will be a finite process, or that it will ever cease to be ongoing.
And the repetition is also evident: We have here the message and meaning repeated twice, also increasing the emphatic nature of this word, and reemphasizing Isaiah’s point. For he does not merely say, ‘their worm will not die’ only, but he then adds to this a second statement: ‘their fire shall not be quenched’. This mode of speak not only reinforces the certainty of this word, but adds confirmation and clarity. For we have twice here that there will be no end to the destruction of these wicked.
- Hermeneutic = ?
That’s the question. What does this mean – what did it mean for them then? And what does it mean for us now? How does this verse shed light onto Jesus’ quotation of this verse regarding hell, and how does it give context and shed light onto the teaching of the other Apostles and authors of the New Testament? And vise versa.
But before we can do hermeneutics, we of course need to get our reading right, and our comprehension right, and then following this, our exegesis.
So before I of course ask you again about the exegesis of this passage, let me first just ask about comprehension. Is there anything in my second section, 2. comprehension, that you deny?
I can’t say I’m enjoying this as neither of us seems to understand what the other is saying
Also there seems to be these “correct” approaches to reading and comprehension that I can’t get my head around (mind you he is smarter than me so it could easily be my lack of ability in this area). As I’ve said before, he would be better off debating here with someone with a doctorate.

Sorry, I wasn’t trying to put words in your mouth, I just honestly thought we established you didn’t think the death was everlasting (which is annihilationism) when you said “the genre is apocolyptic in the first place which saves us in the first place from reading the ‘dead bodies’ literalistically”?
Perhaps Isaiah thought, quite understandably, that God would finally run out of patience and solve (?) the problem of evil by killing the wicked. The righteous would then congratulate themselves by hating even the corpses of their enemies.
“I thank you Lord that I am not like other men. Look! There’s the tax collector! Oh he was loathsome, that little man. How I rejoiced when you finally caught him! Bring out the hot irons! Hurt him some more!”
If this is what Isaiah was actually saying, then he was wrong. He didn’t understand grace. He wouldn’t be the first. The nihilist writer of Ecclesiastes was wrong too. So was the malicious psalmist who longed to murder Babylonian babies.
Look at the passage in the light of Christ’s teaching. We can rejoice over the destruction of God’s enemies only if we first *hate *them with a passion. We are forbidden to hate people, but commanded to hate sin. Therefore, the enemy being destroyed by God isn’t people, but sin. This destruction really is something to long for and we will rejoice over it. The righteous will indeed look on the dead bodies of the wicked (their own past life) with loathing. Isn’t that what Paul did whenever he called himself the “chief of sinners”?
How else can you read this passage without the “righteous” becoming insufferable hypocrites?
Allan, Thank you for that excellent post. Couldn’t agree more!
Thanks dad, I’ve posted it as a comment on Joe’s blog
Allan said…Perhaps Isaiah thought, quite understandably, that God would finally run out of patience and solve (?) the problem of evil by killing the wicked. The righteous would then congratulate themselves by hating even the corpses of their enemies.
“I thank you Lord that I am not like other men. Look! There’s the tax collector! Oh he was loathsome, that little man. How I rejoiced when you finally caught him! Bring out the hot irons! Hurt him some more!”
Well when you put it like that, Allan, it seems pretty clear that no good God would decide that the way to really eradicate evil is to just kill the wicked. Reminds me as a teacher, and I know you are one too, that it would not be ok for us to decide that we’d had enough of our students so we think we’d just like to do away with them now. That’s not really how it works, if you are a good teacher, anyway. There’s always the crazies! But for the rest of us, that seek to emmulate a great God, we are destined to resort working with postive and negative reinforcers, permanent time out (ECT) not being one of them, though some teachers, bad ones I dare say, would like that option.
This also reminds me of the passage in Phill. Ch. 2 where Paul says about Timothy, " 20 I have no one else like him, who will show genuine concern for your welfare." Now imagine a God that doesn’t even measure up to Timothy in that he doesn’t have people’s genuine concern or welfare in mind, only some. It’s really unthinkable! We’d have to be very callous to block out just how callous it is to accept such a God, much less find him praiseworthy! God must have wonderful ways of removing callouses and working with us, or maybe when he gets tired, he just wipes us out! Naw!
Alex, I applaud your bravery on this one. It can be a tough passage but I think you’ve made some pretty fair arguments.

If this is what Isaiah was actually saying, then he was wrong. He didn’t understand grace. He wouldn’t be the first. The nihilist writer of Ecclesiastes was wrong too. So was the malicious psalmist who longed to murder Babylonian babies
No, Isaiah is considered to have just about the most well-developed view of grace of all the books of the OT. I would say that he even trumps King David in his expansive understanding of God’s grace, and is very progressive and ahead of his time, especially in the latter portion of his book.
In that light, the exegesis of this passage cannot be that simple, especially as it is said earlier in the same book:
For I will not be hostile forever or perpetually angry, for then man’s spirit would grow faint before me, the life-giving breath I created…
Isaiah 57:16
It seems to me that if we are doing any kind of exegesis, we should take a wide look at the author’s intent first before adding any kind of agenda to it or EVEN before adding a Christological interpretation. For if we were to cut out that part of the process we could merely propose that it was saying almost anything about Christ that we like.
Was it really integral to the point that their worm will not die out or the fire never be quenched? Or was the emphasis something else entirely?
Is it not on God’s complete sovereignty and rightfully deserved worship? This is the true intent of the passage. Given that Isaiah had a merciful outlook toward those who become repentant (this doesn’t even need to be referenced; you could almost just blindly pick a passage and find several verses on this theme), I don’t think that this was his intent at all, and God’s even less.
The point is that worship of God will be universal. This is obviously the first and foremost point. That those who worship other, disgusting gods in defiance of the true God YHWH will be cut off and destroyed. The main point here being that worship will be done exclusively toward God. The main emphasis here is not that certain rebels will never stop being destroyed, but that people will see what worship of other gods brings. The worm does not die and the fire is not quenched as an object lesson - this should be obvious from the point of the text. The constant duration is not for the “benefit” of the rebels, who have already died, but those who are then able to be aware of them and thus the consequences of worshipping other gods. Of course, this was a metaphor that no one took literally (at least, and especially, the absolute unending duration of it - remember that ancient Near Eastern languages were often hyperbolic) but understood to mean that the differences between worship of YHWH and other gods would be made clearly known. This is the ESSENCE of this closing passage of Isaiah and wraps up his entire prophetic message. If we were going to be interpreting this Christologically anyway this would be the highest possible meaning we could give to it.
But exactly because the point is not that the rebels’ suffering would be literally unending, and in fact that they would not be consciously undergoing it, we cannot simply interpret this in light of ECT. In fact, the metaphor refers to a physical event which those who survived are able to perceive and recognize, and the victims of which are not even conscious of, because the purpose is more for the survivors than the rebels anyway. Thus it doesn’t make all that great of a point for ECT, the whole point of which is for the “benefit” of those suffering the torment, to show to them the consequences of not worshipping God or to give them their just desserts, whathaveyou, etc (again, it makes a better point for annihilationism).
So what did Jesus mean in his quotation of this verse? Well, theology has developed significantly since the utterances of Isaiah. It has been built and re-built, the Israelites have been exiled to Babylon and come back (which significantly impacted their theology to say the least) as well as overthrown by the Greeks and Romans. These prophetic sayings (especially those which accurately predicted their plight and gave supreme guidance) had been interpreted and re-interpreted in light of an ongoing change of trials and circumstance. At this point there’s a burning trash dump outside the city called Gehenna which the Jews would dump their refuse into. It was taught by the leading rabbis of the day that the wicked would suffer there until such a time as they have been purified.
Now, Jesus comes along and in all of this context says that if there is anything in you causing you to sin (at all; even a minor body part), then you will be cast into Gehenna, where the fire does not go out. Additionally, he says that everyone will be salted with fire. Is his point thus that the suffering will literally never, ever, ever end? I don’t think we’re doing the passage justice if we treat it such, especially seeing as everyone will be going there (or at least experience some of its flames) and it is not a good interpretation given cross-reference to other verses. His point is that we cannot decide ourselves whether we are able to escape it or not. Christ is cleverly using a passage that had a slightly different intent in its original usage and employing it for another end (which the NT writers were pretty skilled at doing).
But I say slightly because although the reasoning for the original wording of that quote is different, the main point of the passage is preserved: nothing less than worship (in deed as well as through words) of God is required. The consequences of doing otherwise is absolute. In short, Jesus is saying, “God’s not going to change, so you’re going to have to.” Does this mean then that his intent is that those who don’t change before entering Gehenna are prohibited from, or unable to, change afterward? Far be it from him! If the main point is that change of the person is demanded, then surely unquenchable fire geared toward that same focus is not to keep them from it. In fact, this goes well with another of Jesus’ apocalyptic proclamations:
Settle matters quickly with your adversary who is taking you to court. Do it while you are still together on the way, or your adversary may hand you over to the judge, and the judge may hand you over to the officer, and you may be thrown into prison. Truly I tell you, you will not get out until you have paid the last penny.
Matt 5:25-26
Getting out is allowed upon one condition: paying the price. In other words, changing. Doing your dues. Going back and repenting, recanting. Otherwise absolutely no mercy will be shown, and there’s nothing that you can do to stop that.
This seems to be the clear intent that Jesus is trying to get across in this early message: God is absolute, therefore we must change because He won’t.
But this in no way precludes that we cannot change, or that suffering won’t be reprieved when we do. It’s rebellion that’s hated; not us. God will not be angry with us forever, or else our spirits which he produced will grow faint before him; but his anger produces righteousness in us.
And yes, I think there’s more than enough room to provide for the bodies of the rebels symbolizing our own past, dead selves. The rebellion of humanity as a whole is a rather vast theme of scripture, and since the point is about rebellion and not the rebels themselves, and God and not the worshippers themselves either, then those other points are relative in contrast to these ones. If the point was about the rebels, then we’d all be sunk. That’s Christological. God will eliminate all rebellion against him - will burn away the dross of humanity, leaving only worship of Himself - the dross within our own hearts and minds. If God were to simply give up on the wicked, He’d have to simply give up on us all. But mercifully He doesn’t. And if He doesn’t give up on us, what of those who have yet to show Him allegiance? Is He not after their hearts and minds too, as well as those of the survivors?
Great post my friend Feel free to post some (there’s a word limit) of your response on Joe’s blog if you like.
Unfortunately, I had to end this conversation with Joe because it was just too hard via restrictive blog comments, and I wasn’t understanding his rules for interpreting scripture The only way forward for me, would be to talk it over with him in person, with a very big white board, but neither of us have the time for that at the moment.
Great post my friend
Feel free to post some (there’s a word limit) of your response on Joe’s blog if you like.
Unfortunately, I had to end this conversation with Joe because it was just too hard via restrictive blog comments, and I wasn’t understanding his rules for interpreting scripture
The only way forward for me, would be to talk it over with him in person, with a very big white board, but neither of us have the time for that at the moment.
Done and done, my friend!

Dear Justin
You’ve begun with an unqualified statement (Isaiah is “considered”…), then moved straight to an assumption (In that light, the exegesis of this passage “cannot be that simple”…), and then hit us with an embarrassing use of a proof text (“I will not be hostile forever” Isaiah 57:16) without any adequate exegesis, before then undermining the primary priority of exegesis that must precede establishment of any overall message in Isaiah.
The reference you’ve given upfront is set within the passage Isaiah 57:14-21, where the LORD begins by addressing “my people” (vs 14), but ends by addressing “the wicked” (vs 20). He begins in the first section of this passage (vs 14-19) speaking to “Israel” (vs 19) and promising to THEM, “peace, peace, to those far and near,” says the LORD, “And I will heal them.” And addressed to them he says, “I will not be angry forever”…
But then in the second section within this passage (vs 20-21), and it is Isaiah’s own “BUT” here in this passage, he goes on immediately to say: ‘But the wicked are like the tossing sea, which cannot rest, whose waves cast up mire and mud. “There is no peace”, says my God, “for the wicked.”’ (vs 20-21).
Though there will be ‘peace’/’rest’ for God’s people/Israel, there will be no peace for the wicked.
Here up close, as when we zoom out and look at the big picture of Isaiah’s overall message, there will be in the end a final lasting salvation for the LORD’s people AND a final lasting punishment of those whom God destroys.
I’m not going to go back and repeat what I’ve said here previously about the proper respect that you need to give the author in reading to comprehend to exegete before seeking your hermeneutic.
However, briefly let me say it seems from what you’ve written here that you’re approach betrays its backward nature. You’ve written, “It seems to me that if we are doing any kind of exegesis, we should take a wide look at the author’s intent first before adding any kind of agenda to it.”
So you’ve omitted to comment upon what I’ve said about comprehension and exegesis, but instead admitted to wanting to make exegesis subject to your pre-formed view of Isaiah’s overall point that you can only (by consequence) arrive at by some other means; that is, unless you admit that what comes first must be an exegesis based upon the rules of reading and comprehension that are set by the author of the text with his genre.
You want to move on immediately to Isaiah’s intent and emphasis and overall point (that worship will be ‘universal’) and, in particular, to the way that your concept of Isaiah’s overall point changes the way you read this text and the meaning that you derive from this and other passages, and without either:
(1) proving from exegesis that these presuppositions are correct, or
(2) defining your terminology such as ‘universal’ worship according to Isaiah’s usage, rather than allowing your imprecision to hide the assumptions inherent within this way of arguing.
But let me ask you:
Do you deny that in Isaiah’s mind, as he penned 66:24 in his own apocalyptic genre, that ‘fire’ and ‘worm’ were both AGENTS of DESTRUCTION of the bodies of these rebels who lie slain by the LORD? And,
Do you deny that the nature of Jesus’ use of this verse (his quotation within Mark’s narrative, Mk 9:48) gives us 100% confidence that Isaiah 66:24 is a prophecy by the Prophet about Hell?
For I will not be hostile forever or perpetually angry, for then man’s spirit would grow faint before me, the life-giving breath I created…
Isaiah 57:16
Excellent post, Mr. Renegade. A perfect example of choosing the correct starting point. If Isa.66 is read with the above quote in view, then grace must have the last word, not undying worms. Some other way of understanding the worm/corpse stuff must be found, and I think your view is quite compelling.
That really is a great verse. Either God will be angry with some people forever, or he won’t be. Either God will crush their spirits forever, or he won’t.

- Do you deny that in Isaiah’s mind, as he penned 66:24 in his own apocalyptic genre, that ‘fire’ and ‘worm’ were both AGENTS of DESTRUCTION of the bodies of these rebels who lie slain by the LORD?
Was Joe ever a rebel against the Lord? Isn’t God in the business of killing that rebel forever? Does Joe ever look back on his old rebellious life with loathing? Is that rebellious life riddled with worms?
- Do you deny that the nature of Jesus’ use of this verse (his quotation within Mark’s narrative, Mk 9:48) gives us 100% confidence that Isaiah 66:24 is a prophecy by the Prophet about Hell?
This begs the question. If hell is the painful place where the rebel in each of us is killed forever, then Yes, it’s a prophesy about hell. In grace and wisdom, God ensures there is no rest for the wicked. Instead of peace, God turns up the heat until we come to our senses. But if hell is ECT, a dark place where God’s implacable hostility never ends, where he intentionally and unremittingly crushes the spirits of men forever, then No.
No, Isaiah is considered to have just about the most well-developed view of grace of all the books of the OT. I would say that he even trumps King David in his expansive understanding of God’s grace, and is very progressive and ahead of his time, especially in the latter portion of his book.
Indeed, and here is how he knows it - by experience.
Then flew one of the seraphims unto me, having a live coal in his hand, which he had taken with the tongs from off the altar: And he laid it upon my mouth, and said, Lo, this hath touched thy lips; and thine iniquity is taken away, and thy sin purged.
(Isa 6:6-7)
Look my friends Sin being purged by fire.
Thankyou for that quote, I’ve just shown it to a friend when talking about being salted with fire