I posted this in another thread: In Matthew 23 Jesus says it was the Jews’ will to reject the gospel. In Romans 11 Paul pretty clearly says it was God’s will that the Jews rejected the gospel. What do you think?
qaz… can you post the specific texts saying thus and so.
37 “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to it! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you were not willing!
7 What then? Israel failed to obtain what it was seeking. The elect obtained it, but the rest were hardened, 8 as it is written,
“God gave them a spirit of stupor,
eyes that would not see
and ears that would not hear,
down to this very day.”
9 And David says,
“Let their table become a snare and a trap,
a stumbling block and a retribution for them;
let their eyes be darkened so that they cannot see,
and bend their backs forever.”
I think Mark also said the jews were blinded so otherwise they might believe and I think he was quoting Isaiah.
Yes I do think they were blinded so that the gentiles would not surmise Jesus was another Jewish sect & dismiss him.
Does it violate our so called free will? Clearly!
I think that’s a very good explanation for why God blinded Israel.
Yes… and it also pays to remember that the hardening was only ever in part, AND that for a purpose, i.e., the redemption of ALL Israel, which then in the gospel became inclusive of the gentiles (Acts 15:14; 13:48) thus leading to the reconciling of all humanity.