my interpretation of Matthew 25:31-46

[Origen]

I found this interpretation (quoted below) interesting: https://www.christianforums.com/threads/why-are-so-many-christians-against-annihilation-in-hell-when-scripture-supports-it.8072784/page-11#post-72942522

"Again, look at its immediate context which is not hard to do. The passage does not contain chilioi so the germane question is, does it refer to eternity or to an age of time? The context better fits with my claim that it refers to age instead of eternity which you have presumed upon.

1. The judgment takes place on earth upon Christ’s return. Those who are judged are those persons who are still alive. Thus it cannot be the great white throne judgment which takes place after the millennial reign upon Christ’s return and when the rest of the dead (not those alive) are resurrected.
2. Verse 34 states that Jesus tells his sheep on the right to “inherit the kingdom.” What do you suppose this means? What kingdom? How long? I assume you know or agree that what happens after this statement is that Jesus’ return ushers in his 1,000 year reign on earth. If this is the case then the sheep - those people alive at his return - enter into the millennial age.
3. This cannot be the bema seat judgment either as the sheep are unredeemed. They are not the “raptured” saints who return with Christ.
4. For reasons already mentioned, this cannot be the GWT judgment. Also, there is no reference to any kingdom associated with the GWT judgment while the sheep/goat does indeed reference a kingdom.
   Therefore, the purpose of the Sheep/Goat judgment is to see who will inherit the kingdom (Matt 25:34) and who will not (Matt 25:41). The purpose of the Great White Throne judgment is to see who will be sent to the lake of fire (Rev 20:15).

Given the above context, I submit that Matt 25:46 references a limited age of time, specifically the 1,000 year reign of Christ on earth whereby the Son establishes his kingdom rule. Those sheep thus have age-long life during this millennial age. I see no where in this passage any support for interpreting this passage as referencing “eternal” - or even alluding to it."

Why are so many Christians against annihilation in hell when scripture supports...

[Origen]

From: http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?130333-The-Restitution-Of-All-Things-AKA-Universalism&p=5267891&posted=1#post5267891

2. The righteous go into eternal life. The cursed into everlasting punishment. The word for everlasting and eternal is the same here - so unless there is some specific construction leading us to believe that the comparison here is not direct, one would have to give the eternal life of the righteous the same weight as the everlasting punishment due the wicked. A similar argument is made by UR proponents about “all” in I Corinthians 15:22 (and may have been made in this thread - my apologies, I haven’t read it in its entirety). So if the eternal life of the believer is never to cease, why should we think the punishment due the wicked will? And if the life of the believer is merely age-lasting, does that mean that at some point in the future, that salvation can be expended and come to an end?

Regarding your questions, nikolai, there are two main universalist interpretations of Mt.25:46:

(1) The aionion life & the aionion punishment refer to contrasting eonian destinies pertaining to a finite eonian period to come, e.g. the millennial eon. The verse has nothing to do, & says nothing about, final destiny. Regarding the endless life of the righteous in Christ, other passages address that topic, such as those that speak of immortality, incorruption & being unable to die.

(2) Another universalist option in interpretating Mt.25:46 is that aionion life refers to a perpetual life that lasts as long as God Almighty wills it to last, so it is endless. OTOH, aionion punishment refers to a perpetual punishment that also lasts as long as Love Omnipotent wills it to last, which is until it has served its useful purpose in bringing the offender to the salvation in their Savior, Who died & shed His blood for their sins. While life is an end in itself, punishment is a means to an end.

Furthermore, since aionion is an adjective, it “must therefore function like an adjective, and it is the very nature of an adjective for its meaning to vary, sometimes greatly, depending upon which noun it qualifies.” A tall chair is not the same height as a tall mountain. Likewise, the aionion punishment is not of the same duration as the aionion life.

That was a brief explanation of the main two different universalist interpretations of Mt.25:46. Following are more elaborate remarks in support of these two perspectives. Continued at:

http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?130333-The-Restitution-Of-All-Things-AKA-Universalism&p=5267891&posted=1#post5267891

[Origen]

The following is from a discussion at theologyonline.com.

Let us look at this verse again:

And these shall go away into eternal (aiōnios) punishment: but the righteous into life eternal (aiōnios) (Mt.25:26).

Since the structure of this verse is best described as being a “parallelism” then the Greek word aiōnios must carry with it the same meaning in both instances where it is used.

Then, by the same reasoning, the “parallel” in Rom.5:19 proves Scriptural universalism to be true:

Rom 5:18 Consequently, then, as it was through one offense for ALL MANKIND for condemnation, thus also it is through one just act for ALL MANKIND for life’s justifying."

Rom 5:19 For even as, through the disobedience of the one man, THE MANY were constituted sinners, thus also, through the obedience of the One, THE MANY shall be constituted just."

1 Cor.15:22 AS in Adam ALL die SO ALSO in Christ shall ALL be made alive.

1 Cor.15:28 And when ALL shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put ALL under him, that God may be all in ALL.

Col.1:16 For by Him ALL was created that are in HEAVEN and that are on EARTH, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All was created through Him and for Him.
20 and by Him to reconcile ALL to Himself, by Him, whether on EARTH or in HEAVEN, having made peace through the blood of His cross.

And your translation of Mt.25:46 contradicts this translation of Lamentations 3:

Lam.3:31 For the Lord will NOT cast off FOR EVER:
32 For if He causes grief, Then He will have compassion According to His abundant lovingkindness. 33 For He does not afflict willingly Or grieve the SONS OF MEN.

While these translations (& some others) of Mt.25:46 are in harmony with all the verses above i have posted:

The New Testament: A Translation, by Eastern Orthodox scholar David Bentley Hart, 2017, Yale Press):
“And these shall go to the chastening of that Age, but the just to the life of that Age.”

Youngs Literal Translation of the Holy Bible, 1898:
“And these shall go away to punishment age-during, but the righteous to life age-during.”

Emphatic Diaglott, 1942 edition
“And these shall go forth to the aionian 1 cutting-off; but the RIGHTEOUS to aionian Life.”

Concordant Literal New Testament, 1983
And these shall be coming away into chastening eonian, yet the just into life eonian."

Rotherham Emphasized Bible, 1959
“And these shall go away into age-abiding correction, But the righteous into age-abiding life.”

[Paidion]

Matthew 25:46 is one of the best verses that teach the future correction of the wicked.

Here is a correct translation:

And these will go away into lasting correction, but the righteous into lasting life.

The Greek word “aionios” means “lasting.” This meaning fits all contexts. A different Greek word is used for “eternal”—namely “aidios.” (Romans 1:20 contains the word “aidios.”

“kolasis” was originally used concerning trimming trees in order to correct their growth. Later, the same word was used for correcting the behaviour of children.

[Origen]

The following is from a discussion at theologyonline.com.

Let’s look at Romans 5:19:

[INDENT]“For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many (polus) be made righteous” (Ro.5:19).[/INDENT]

Here the Greek word translated “many” is polus. If Paul wanted to say that “all” will be made righteous he would have used the Greek word pas, which means “all.” But he didn’t use that word here.

So the Greek words used by Paul contradict the teaching of the Universalists who say that “all” will be made righteous.

By that reasoning Jesus Christ did not give Himself a ransom for “all” humans because the Bible says He gave Himself a ransom for “many” (Mk.10:45). Yet He gave Himself a ransom for “all” humans (1 Tim.2:6). Did He give Himself a ransom for Himself, or is He excluded from the “all”? “All” humans minus one human (i.e. Jesus) equals “many” humans.

Rom 5:19 For even as, through the disobedience of the one man, THE MANY were constituted sinners, thus also, through the obedience of the One, THE MANY shall be constituted just."

Paul makes a parallel between “the many” who were condemned & sinners and those who will be justified & constituted just. “In Romans 5, the justification is co-extensive with the condemnation. Since all share in one, all share in the other. If only a certain portion of the human race had partaken of the sin of Adam, only a certain portion would partake of the justification of Christ. But St. Paul affirms all to have been involved in one, and all to be included in the other.”

Therefore there is salvation after death. And corrective postmortem punishment. Jesus shall see of the travail of His soul & be satisfied. Not satisfied a little bit, but the vast majority fried alive forever. “He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.” (Isa.53:11). For how “many” (not few) did He “bear their iniquities”? All.

That can work only if you can trick your mind into believing that the Greek word translated “many” means the same as “all.”

The “many” were constituted sinners (v.19) when they sinned (Ro.5:12). So the word “many” cannot be referring to “all” since infants and little children have not yet sinned.

Then by that reasoning, if it were true (which is questionable), we still have Romans 5:18-19 teaching that every fallen disobedient human being will be saved, following the logic of your “parallel” remark below. And if the worst sinners are going to be saved, who would doubt that innocent babies will also be saved? Shall Love Omnipotent torture infants in hell for the endless ages of eternity (as per the dogma of Augustine, the champion of endless hell)? So, here again, is the problem you still face & have yet to weasel your way out of:

Let us look at this verse again:

[INDENT]“And these shall go away into eternal (aiōnios) punishment: but the righteous into life eternal (aiōnios)” (Mt.25:26).[/INDENT]

Since the structure of this verse is best described as being a “parallelism” then the Greek word aiōnios must carry with it the same meaning in both instances where it is used.

Then, by the same reasoning, the “parallel” in Rom.5:19 proves Scriptural universalism to be true:

Rom 5:18 Consequently, then, as it was through one offense for ALL MANKIND for condemnation, thus also it is through one just act for ALL MANKIND for life’s justifying."

Rom 5:19 For even as, through the disobedience of the one man, THE MANY were constituted sinners, thus also, through the obedience of the One, THE MANY shall be constituted just."

[Paidion]

Good explanation, Origen! Not only good, but also correct