peshitta (Aramaic)?


#1

We all know Jesus spoke Aramaic, not Greek. Does the fact that so much of universalist apologetics relies on breaking down the Greek create a problem?


#2

We all know Jesus spoke Aramaic, not Greek. Does the fact that so much of universalist apologetics relies on breaking down the Greek create a problem?
qaz

Posts: 912
Joined: Sat Oct 17, 2015 10:51 am

No i don’t see why, because the bible authors in the NT wrote in koine greek perhaps because in the Roman empire they generally used greek? The only parts where there could be an issue is where they quoted Jesus but there is no reason not to trust the translation as far as i know.


#3

Jesus indeed spoke Aramaic… we don’t know however that he didn’t speak Greek, he may well have.

I shouldn’t imagine any more than any other position that does in kind. Where I do see an issue is where some folk treat textual “scholars” as though they were illiterate lepers, and thus ignore them, and then blithely go their way and create no end of spurious explanations for said Greek.


#4

So Just so I know, How do we KNOW Jesus spoke in Aramaic? :confused:


#5

The likes of…

Jesus also spoke in Hebrew…


#6

The possible issue I see is that we must assume there is an Aramaic equivalent to that word “eonian”; that when Jesus talked in Aramaic about aiovios punishment, he wasn’t talking about eternal/unending punishment.


#7

The possible issue I see is that we must assume there is an Aramaic equivalent to that word “eonian”; that when Jesus talked in Aramaic about aiovios punishment, he wasn’t talking about eternal/unending punishment

I think Aramaic is Hebrew with some other influences from various languages so Jesus may have used “olam.”


#8

It might be worth noting that the Syriac branches of the ancient church are historically strong in universalism. Evidently they didn’t see a special problem in Aramaic per se. (“Syriac” is basically a couple of late dialects of Aramaic.)

I don’t recall what the Aramaic equivalents of OLM and AHD are, but I doubt they’re less flexible than OLM and AHD.

An underlying Aramaic also explains a lot of the weird forms of the Greek, most of which aren’t obvious in English translations. It’s strong enough that an argument can be made with some strength that all the NT texts were first written in Aramaic and then translated to Greek. (And then back to Aramaic/Syriac dialects.) Ancient tradition says this definitely happened with GosMatt at least.


#9

Aramaic is a different language from Hebrew but they are related, just as Spanish and Portugese are different languages but related. Aramaic speakers often didn’t understand Hebrew speakers.

Then Eliakim, Shebna, and Joah said to the Rabshakeh, “Please speak to your servants in the Aramaic language, for we understand it; and do not speak to us in Hebrew in the hearing of the people who are on the wall.” (Isaiah 36:11)

Yes, Jesus spoke Aramaic, but that fact doesn’t imply that He ALWAYS spoke Aramaic. Is there any reason to believe that He didn’t also speak Greek—perhaps most of the time?


#10

I would rather say the opposite, the greatest problem in defending universalism is the idea of eternity, however the idea of eternity as we understand it today is said to have been developed by Plato; so being a Greek idea, it might have been altogether foreign to the Hebrew or Aramic mind back then.

Actually universalism is most explicitly taught in Paul’s letters, so the gospels are more or less irrelevant to this topic, it is clear by the book of Acts that Christ has not yet revealed everything whilst on earth.