Hey guys,
I’m not ignoring anyone. Just got a little Busy again.
I have some catching up to do, reading through the posts and answering some direct questions to me regarding my view. I hope to do that in the next few days but would like to make the following points/observations:
I think the Sermon on the Mount statements Jesus makes needs to be seen through the lens of Jesus very own words regarding the law in the same Sermon on the Mount context.
Please note the following verse in Matt 5 spoken during the Sermon of the Mount. It is in the Context of Jesus correcting the Oral Tradition that added onto what the Law and Prophets said. Notice Jesus direct reference to the Pharisees! This is in the context of the “you have heard…but I tell you” statements.
Matt 5:18-20 (Youngs Literal)
Do not suppose that I came to throw down the law or the prophets – I did not come to throw down, but to fulfill; for, verily I say to you, till that the heaven and the earth may pass away, one iota or one tittle may not pass away from the law, till that all may come to pass. ***Whoever therefore may loose one of these commands ***-- the least – and may teach men so, least he shall be called in the reign of the heavens, but whoever may do and may teach [them], he shall be called great in the reign of the heavens. For I say to you, that if your righteousness may not abound above that of the scribes and Pharisees, ye may not enter to the reign of the heavens.
This hearkens back to Kellys first arguement Which I find to be the correct interpretation of Jesus words. Jesus is not correcting or changing the law of God. He is correcting the Pharisees false additions to God’s law. I think its unmistakable that Jesus is saying “your man made laws have taught X but I tell you Y” Jesus is not saying “You have read that God said X but I say Y”. We know this because Jesus matt 5:18-20 statements above Validates the entire OT as correct and in contrast to the Pharisees and scribes (the Keepers of the Oral Tradition) whose Righteousness we must surpass.
So the King/Messiah sitting on the Mount was destroying Not God’s Law… but the Oral Law …which wrongly interpreted God’s Perfect Law.
Now, do not be mistaken. I see there is clearly a New Covenant that has come. Many things in the law were to be “fulfilled” just as Jesus said and therefore the shadows are becoming obsolete (just as the Epistles tell us)
I think our question is coming down to …“what things have become obsolete”. as the Writer put it.
Or …What things did Jesus Fulfill because according to him the law and prophets are not passing away. He is just fulfilling what he said is coming. And that fulfillment appears in my mind to clearly be the New Covenant in his blood as spoken of in many places but maybe most vividly detailed in Jeremiah.
I am not sure when the New Covenant came(it may be at his birth, at the start of his ministry, at his death, at the coming of the H.S. at Pentecost), but every single last one of us on this thread agrees it has come, and so certain things have been fulfilled.
I think an important distinction to make is that The Temple may not have been destroyed yet when the Epistles were written, but clearly per the Timeline in the book of Acts The Holy Spirit came Before Paul had even made his trips to establish all these Churches that He later Writes to in all the Epistles (Thessalonia, Corinth, Rome, Phillipi Etc Etc). So when Paul is writing all these letters, it is After the Pouring out of the Holy Spirit. So unless one views the temple destruction as the start of the New Covenant, then what Paul instructs in the Epistles under the Holy Spirit is very applicable to Gentiles under the New Covenant.
So I would like to ask a Basic question…
Should we view Pauls instructions in the Epistles to Gentiles as instructions that New Covenant Believers should Follow?
I am not addressing the Sabbath issue(Keeping it or not) right now. Though I know some are discussing that. I am doing a Follow up to some of Redhotmagma’s points.
I am asking a fundamental question about How we view Pauls Literal Commands in the Epistles to New Covenant Gentiles. Should we literally follow them or not?
I would propose that Most if not nealy all of these Literal commands were first taught by Jesus and are applicable for New Covenant Gentiles.
When we make general statements like “the law (literal commands kill) but the spirit gives life” are we then saying that when Paul says to submit to your authorities, that we should disregard that command because its literal and only reflects a spiritual principle. Or When Paul says “Husbands love your wives” we should disregard because clearly its talking about Jesus Loving the Church.
Or is it possible Paul was repeating the same things Jesus was saying and the Literal just as much as the spiritual should be followed, unless or course:
A) It was a command given to foreshadow something coming, and therefore obsolete because it was fulfilled.
B) It was specifically a non Universal command given to Israel under the Old Mosaic Covenant between God and Israel.
Regarding keeping the Sabbath itself. Though I am neutral on that, it appears the Sabbath was a principle that trancends the Mosaic Covenant since the day of Rest principle God established prior to the Mosaic Covenant. He established it at the creation of the heavens and earth.
Regarding Jesus breaking the Sabbath. Bob, I see either you or Auggy made a point that Under the old Covenant Manna was stricly forbidden to be collected on the Sabbath. But I am not sure how this point stands up to the fact that God specifically in the same Sabbath Command context Clearly established the exception to Sabbath work with the priesthood. Those set apart for God’s work were specifically commanded to do certain work on the Sabbath. In Fact for them, since they were the mediators between the people and God, their most involved day of work Was the Sabbath. So they were clearly exempt from the Command God gave to the common folk.
So was Jesus a common folk or in the category of Priest that would be doing God’s work on the Sabbath? And his disciples who were hand selected to leave common work and follow Jesus and be Fishers of Men, were they also common folk when they picked the grain? Or were they now set apart for ministry Of Jesus the Great High Priest? What one thinks about Penal Substitution seems to be totally irrelevant to the fact that Jesus was a High Priest as the NT indicates. Seems more of a straw man type of way to disregard that Jesus and his disciples were unmistakably set apart to do the Work of God and meeting the exceptions that God establish with the Priests when he gave the Sabbath instructions in the first place. And is this not Jesus exact arguement when the Pharisees accused him of the exact charge you guys appear to be bringing? I know we are all trying to figure this out and understand each others position so please excuse the comparison I am making with you guys and the Pharisees. I see Bob and Auggy as exceeding the Pharisees It just seems to me that the very reason the Pharisees could not see Jesus as meeting the exceptions of the priesthood, is because the Pharisees did not realize that he was indeed the Great High Priest. And if they did, they would justify what he did. For even David and his men were justified per oral law for the same exact actions. WHy? because they were not common folk. They were employed by God in his service. So The Pharisees Did See exceptions, they just didn’t see that Jesus was employed by God.