All poignant answers and I appreciate the insight. Yet I still have to point out that nowhere in the parable, or in the progression of the ‘harvest’ therein, is there any indication that the tares turn into wheat (or vice versa, for that matter).
Nor is the argument that the wheat and the tares are just of different shades of ourselves seem to bear out, for again I must stress that in the interpretation Jesus gives it clearly states that there are two factions of children at play here.
In the Parable of the Sower, Jesus clearly identifies what each symbol represents in the real world. The seed is the Word of God and the four soils are the various conditions of the hearts of people for whom the Word of God is given. And the fruit that the fourth soil bears is that which is produced by those who receive the Word and are of a noble and good heart. There is no speculating about what the parable means, it is clear from the intepretation.
So likewise, it would be consistent to assume that the parable of the wheat and the tares bears the same clear interpretation as the former parable, without the need to allegorize what the symbols mean. Good seed = children of the kingdom. Bad seed = children of the wicked one.
I’m not trying to insist this is what the parable means. I’m only trying to be consistent. Nor am I espousing necessarily some form of Calvinism, which I abhor the thought of.
I do have one thought concerning this, a radical thought indeed, but I caution that it is just an idea that may be stretching it. But I only put it out for further discussion.
What if the children of the wicked one, presumably the Devil, are really his children, i.e. fallen angels or perhaps some kind of hybrid human as some suggest in Genesis 6, through the mating of sons of God with the daughters of men. If somehow they were able to propagate through the centuries, they would be indistinguishable among us God-created humans. And they would be responsible for much of the evil that has risen in the world.
There are various cases in the bible where angels have appeared in the form of humans. We learn in Hebrews 13:2 that some have entertained strangers unaware that they were angels. In Jude 1:4, we are told that some have crept into the churches ‘**who were before of old **ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.’ Why would they have been condemned ‘before of old’? This suggests that whoever these ungodly men were, they are ancient. And then in verse 6-7 we have this description: “And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.” Apparently angel can, and have, engaged in sexual fornication, even going after strange flesh (which I assume to mean homosexual activity. Again, if this is the case, they are indistinguishable from humans.
Jesus said that the everlasting fire was prepared for the devil and his angels. Perhaps this is literally true in the sense that these tares are evil angels among us who have already been condemned as being the children of the wicked one, yet live among us as humans, until they are revealed and burned up at the end of the harvest, with no humans involved. Would they not also have the senses of wailing and gnashing of teeth? Certainly they admitted to being tormented by Jesus when they abode in the man of Gergesenes (Matthew 8:29). How else would we as the ‘elect’ be qualified to judge angels ( I Corinthians 6:3) if we didn’t have opportunity tosee them physically operating around us in human form?
Thoughts anyone?