Exactly… and this is the problem slicing and dicing scripture according to presuppositions brought TO the text. Should we likewise question and impugn Jesus because through prophetic recapitulation he applies a prophecy about the times of Antiochus Epiphanes to himself in bringing the warning of future destruction? But to do so would be to not understand the covenants in light of Israel’s HISTORY.
Take for example the prophetic drama of the overthrow of the four beasts Daniel… this was about the transfer of sovereignty to “one like a Son of man” which in its original setting has reference to the circumstances leading to the Maccabean crisis in the 2nd century BC. Jesus, following Jewish apocalyptic tradition has taken this scenario and transposed it to the circumstances of first century Judaism.
The Greek or Western mindset of “prophecy” is that of prediction and fulfillment. The Hebrew idea of prophecy however is that of pattern and recapitulation of patterns i.e., manifold fulfilments leading to the consummate fulfillment or desired goal. Each of these multiple fulfilments becomes a “type” — teaching something further about the ultimate end.
OT prophecy was more than mere predictive foretelling, but more so prescriptive forth-telling, or telling forth the Word of God… often in times of crisis. Certain “events” were foretold, while on other occasions the prophets’ utterance told forth or was instructive of God’s will to be followed, and or their called response to such.
In relation to “events” — prophecies were fulfilled in that OT setting — however, it was not unusual for Jesus to use such past fulfillment as a “type” of whatever it was Jesus was speaking to, and thus it became the “antitype” — take for example Lk 13:3-5. Or for instance, take Matthew’s references of Hosea’s words “Out of Egypt I called my son” as a prophecy concerning Jesus, where in fact Hosea speaks of Israel (Jesus of course being TRUE Israel aka the TRUE vine… hence the link etc of Jn 15:1 and Isa 5:7; Jer 2:21; Psa 80:8-9). Hosea’s words in Matthew’s mind had more than one meaning i.e., application. They meant historically that God had called Israel out of Egypt, and yet also now meant, contemporarily, that the young Jesus was being likewise delivered, being God’s chosen Son, Deliver and Messiah. More than one dimension is present, as is plain to see.
So this isn’t so much a case of “multiple fulfilments” as it was the reapplying of the meaning of such a fulfillment. One way to understand this is Jesus’ words in relation to the Scriptures or old covenant tradition when he said — “you have heard it said… but I say to you…” — Jesus’ reinterpretation or reapplication is the recapitulation of what has gone before — but with a renewed and somewhat “fulfilled” or completed meaning i.e., its ultimate end — and that always in light of the new covenant of which all of old covenant history and story ultimately pointed. And we know that all redemptive history, of which much was expressed through the prophetic, came to fruition and fulfillment in Jesus’ “this generation” timeframe AD30-70; culminating with ‘the Day of the Lord’ circa AD70 with the destruction of the Temple itself.
However, if “prophecy” is just seen in terms of “multiply fulfilments” beyond the biblical narrative then it is only natural to ask… how many times does prophecy get fulfilled before it is actually fulfilled or realised? Such becomes an endless loop according to the next theory or timetable espoused.