What does that mean?
I am being drawn in…
The Peshitta is the Aramaic text of the Scriptures.
And… it reads slightly differently than the Greek NT, as per the bolded underlined of the verse above.
So how do you interpret it?
I just accept the texts as they read.
I’m not trying to push, and you have no reason to respond, but your Matt: 5:32 response and about the Peshitta, makes me wonder?
The divorce idea is a real issue for all of us today.
Thanks in advance. (sorry for the push )
“Push” is fine… I’m not quite sure though what you’re pushing for exactly — can you clarify
Davo, you can agree or disagree with me. However, we ALL know that words can be changed, twisted and added. That is a FACT. Nobody was following Jesus around recording every word that He said.
According to Luke 16:18 "EVERYONE who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery. NO EXCEPTIONS.
1 Cor. 7:39 says this: “A wife is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if he dies ( which to me, includes one who is “dead” in the Spirit) she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.”
Again in Romans 7:2-3 “For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies ( including spiritual death) she is released from the law of her husband. So then if , while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress ; But if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.”
Paul even goes on to say in 1 Cor. 7:1 " It is good for a man not to touch a woman." and that he wishes that all men were like himself. What is this about?
Genesis 2:18 says the quite the opposite “Then the Lord God said " It is not good that the man should be alone. I will make him a helper fit for him.”
Quote all the texts you like LLC but coming from you they are meaningless, as per your own confession…
“how do we know if_______even said these words?”
Well, since Jesus did not write these words Himself, we can either believe this is what was said
Or was Paul more in line with Jesus’ teaching when he says this:
Obviously, there are some discrepancies.
Well, in your world it matters not because…
Perhaps if we ask Jesus the right way, he might come to us now…This is what I was thinking…as I read this article, from my email box today:
So out of the three choices that I presented, what did Jesus actually say?
Do you know Davo?
Sorry, but the Bible is not infallible, so you can get over yourself.
LLC to Davo!
If the Bible is not “infallible”…and you are quoting from it, to justify your position…how do YOU KNOW - which parts are infallible, and which parts are NOT? What is YOUR criteria?
As an aside for everyone…here’s an interesting article, from today’s Patheos’ Catholic newletter:
Well of Randy you are right… this is just another of LLC’s pointless smokescreens. Given LLC’s MO of… “how do we know if_______even said these words?” then absolutely anything and everything is up for grabs… which pretty much explains how LLC can claim (without warrant) that Abraham was a Melchizedekian Priest — go figure
Well, Davo, I think callling LLC’s words “smokescreens” is a value judgment without adequate justification.
I think you should answer her “How do we know?” question.
I think it’s in the same category as asking, “How do we know that in fourteen hundred and ninety-two, Columbus sailed the ocean blue and landed in America, a hitherto unknown continent in ‘the Eastern world.’?” We do not KNOW (in the absolute sense of “know”) but we have evidence—historical evidence.
I think we can answer LLC’s question in the same way—historical evidence—that two of the gospels were written by two of Jesus’ disciples, Matthew and John, who had first-hand knowledge of what Jesus said, since they heard him say these things.
Well, Paidion, have you not been following along and some of LLC’s totally ridiculous and unjustified claims… and now trying to hide behind the fallibility/infallibility argument — something LLC introduced not me, and trying to use it to justify arguments that can’t be justified by Scripture… BECAUSE they’re NOT there.
Example: LLC claims words to the effect that Moses cast out the Levites because they worshipped false gods = idolatry — that is just plain and simple 100% BS!
Moses did no such thing!
The Levites were NEVER cast out!
The Levites were instrumental in aiding the priesthood in worshipping YAHWEH… not false gods!
We, or should I say I, weigh up the historical documents in view and decide whether I find them trustworthy… I find them trustworthy. As to apparent discrepancies… these differences are just comparative information, as I noted to you in another thread, simply providing more or less information accordingly.
Example: You and I in calling the same historic horse race while by and large being on the same page, given we’re calling the self-same event, MAY describe given aspects of said race nuanced differently… even adding or leaving out certain detail. It would be the height of myopic stupidity to claim we were contradictory or that one of us was right and thus the other one wrong — NO, just different.
Like how is it that the evangelical mindset so easily just jettisons logic and common-sense??