why the young’s literal translation translates : the last enemy is done away – death;
is not it a future ?
thank you for your help
My interlinear has it as: “is being abolished,” so I’m guessing it’s more of a present and into the future sort of tense. Maybe someone more established in the ancient languages will also answer. I’d be interested to hear, too.
context…
1 Cor 15:25-27: "for he mnust reign till he may have put all the enemies under his feet –
26 the last enemy is done away – death;
27 for all things He did put under his feet, and, when one may say that all things have been subjected, [it is] evident that He is excepted who did subject the all things to him,"
Paul first says “until” he has put enemies under his feet. So he means this will happen sometime in the future. Then Paul steps into that time, and speaks as though it’s happening in the present - “the last enemy is done away - death” and then in verse 27, he says “and when all things have been subjected…”
So he’s talking about something that’s future, but he steps into that time period when explaining that death is the last enemy abolised.