The Evangelical Universalist Forum

A Question for those who know Hebrew

I’ve never understood the Imprecatory Psalms, and I’m wondering if Augustine could have something here?

newadvent.org/fathers/1801139.htm

In most of our Bibles, the passage he’s commenting on would be Psalm 139:22, and I’m wondering if the text could be taken the way he takes it here.

One problem I have is that the KJV reads “I hate them with perfect hatred,” but the NIV has “I have nothing but hatred for them,” and the ESV reads “I hate them with total hatred.”

Does anyone who knows Hebrew here know what the Hebrew word actually means?

Could it mean “perfect” (in the sense Augustine takes it here–“What is, “with a perfect hatred”? I hated in them their iniquities, I loved Your creation. This it is to hate with a perfect hatred, that neither on account of the vices thou hate the men, nor on account of the men love the vices”)???

This verse is written by the Psalmist. This needn’t suggest God hates anyone. In its context:

If only you would slay the wicked, O God!
Away from me, you bloodthirsty men!
They speak of you with evil intent;
Your adversaries misuse your name.
Do I not hate those who hate you, O Lord,
And abhor those who rise up against you?
I have nothing but hatred for them;
I count them my enemies.

Search me, O God, and know my heart;
Test me and know my anxious thoughts.
See if there is any offensive way in me,
And lead me in the way everlasting.
Psalm 139:19-24
To which I imagine Yahweh would respond: “Yes, the offensive way in you is your unrelenting hatred for my wayward child, and your own prodigal brother. Repent.”

That’s interesting.

But isn’t David called “a man after God’s own heart,” and doesn’t this verse kind of imply that hatred of God’s enemies (or at least of their conduct, which is the way Augustine seems to have taken it) is a virtue?

P.S. It looks like Augustine may have had the right idea when he commented on this passage.

The Hebrew word seems to have something to do with completeness, but our English word (and Augustine’s Latin) have the same etymology.

etymonline.com/index.php?term=perfect

And it seems to be from Augustine’s commentary on this verse that we got the current saying “hate the sin, but love the sinner.”

I think God probably does “hate” our vices (and metonymically speaking, hate the wicked). But I don’t think this verse says anything like it here. Maybe I’m simplistic, but it just seems like David is venting his own negative feelings and offering an uncharitable prayer to God. He’s human, doing human stuff. Being a man “after God’s own heart” just shows an honest, general and concerted intention to fulfill God’s will. It doesn’t necessitate that such a person had received the fullness of revelation (about God’s self-sacrificial love for his enemies), or that even knowing such revelation, he would perfectly act in accordance with that revelation.

Thank you.

P.S. Thanks for mentioning “Metonymy” too.

I’d forgotten about that figure of speech, did a little googling, and found this very interesting.

horizon.hessel.org/wp-conten … Speech.pdf