I’ve never understood the Imprecatory Psalms, and I’m wondering if Augustine could have something here?
newadvent.org/fathers/1801139.htm
In most of our Bibles, the passage he’s commenting on would be Psalm 139:22, and I’m wondering if the text could be taken the way he takes it here.
One problem I have is that the KJV reads “I hate them with perfect hatred,” but the NIV has “I have nothing but hatred for them,” and the ESV reads “I hate them with total hatred.”
Does anyone who knows Hebrew here know what the Hebrew word actually means?
Could it mean “perfect” (in the sense Augustine takes it here–“What is, “with a perfect hatred”? I hated in them their iniquities, I loved Your creation. This it is to hate with a perfect hatred, that neither on account of the vices thou hate the men, nor on account of the men love the vices”)???