I’m wondering if I’m wrong here and I’m hoping on getting some clarification on my position.
I’ve argued with Joe (Alex’s buddy) and on Facebook that God binding all men over to disobedience has larger ramifications than usually interpreted.
When Paul writes: For God has bound all men over to disobedience, that he might have mercy on them all.
I argue that whether one interprets it Jew and Gentile or every individual, there’s really no difference. For if God bound Jews over to disobedience then who among Jews were not hardened? And if God bound Gentiles were bound then who among the Gentiles escapes being bound?
Now I realize Paul is referring to the fact that mercy has been extended out to the gentiles but I would say that means every person who’s not a Jew. And if God has extended mercy out to all Jews then it is every person who’s not a Gentile. Thus I find it inevitable that Paul is arguing that literally EVERY SINGLE PERSON IS A SINNER FOR THE PURPOSE OF HAVING MERCY.
I argue that in Matt 25 the nations will be brought before him and separated like sheep and goats. Why would we think that some people will not? Yes it’s referring to nations but ALL people fall under those categories. Now if Jew and Gentile tantamount to ALL PEOPLE then why would I conclude that SOME PEOPLE HAVE NOT BEEN BOUND TO DISOBEDIENCE BECUASE THEY’RE REALLY GOOD GUYS.
I obviously am using other references to Paul’s theology, but I’ve got no problems with that. In fact I think Paul thinks WERE ALL WRETCHED SINNERS and I hear Paul saying THAT HE MIGHT SHOW US HIS LOVE BY HAVING MERCY ON US.
Anyways, if anyone has any thoughts I’d love to hear them.