I’m not sure what you’re asking. Three of my super-literal Hebrew text resources render those verbs past tense, if that is what you are asking. (God is poetically describing the history of Israel from her miserable beginnings, now past; to the days of her young bridehood, now past; to the days of her prideful adulteries, which started in the past but are currently continuing.)
However, the Concordant Literal version renders them present tense. So for example:
…in•day-of to-be-born-of you not he-is-cut navel(cord)-of-you…
…and so forth throughout the passage. “You are not washed for anointing” “You are not rubbed with salt” “You are not swaddled” You are being flung to surfaces of the field in loathing of your soul."
However, the context indicates that the present tense is being used to call attention to the past in remembrance as a narrative visionary “you are there” effect, so that the reader or hearer will experience the history of Israel firsthand: because the story continues in the same present tense through Israel’s salvation and choosing by God; God’s institution of marriage covenant with Israel; Israel’s pride and adulterous betrayal.
So past time is the correct translation as to contextual meaning, although stylistically the grammar may be present time.
Not sure if that was helpful… 