Major premise: an indifference of equipoise among plural alternatives would make choosing itself impossible.
Since this premise is false, the conclusion is false.
Indeed, this premise is easily shown to be false by consideration of the example you cited in earlier correspondence: the starving man equidistant from indistinguishable meals. The following statement, unlike the above premise, is self evident common-sense and logically inescapable: “If a starving man is faced with equidistant, indistinguishable meals, since it does not matter to his health or happiness which one he chooses, but not choosing one of them would possibly kill him, the only rational action is to freely choose one of them without requiring a justification based on meal-difference, since there is none. (And he will in fact do this, unless insane or otherwise prevented form acting thus.)” Since this proposition is obviously true and contradicts your major premise, the major premise can be ignored.
The only way around this would be if one could demonstrate that freely choosing between indifferently valued alternatives is intrinsically impossible. But, instead of this, you merely ask (below) how God could choose freely between indifferent goods, after rejecting a choosing-mechanism based on temporality (the first thing he thinks of). However, the very fact that you try to understand what the basis for such a free choice is, how the mechanism works of coming to a decision, shows that you have snuck in determinism and the PSR of Leibniz through the back door. In other words, you have assumed the very thing in dispute, a deterministic PSR, in order to argue against the contrary position. This is the classic logical error of begging the question. So, your question is internally inconsistent, in that you are effectively asking how God can choose with pure freedom in any situation while acting deterministically.
Part of the inescapable logic of accepting the reality of Divine free will is that choices between alternatives perfectly indifferent will be perfectly free and therefore will have no prior basis at all, relying on no mathematical mechanism of comparison whatsoever. That’s what freedom means in this context. To then ask, “But how does God (or an angel or man in a similar circumstance) do it?”, is to show that one is still thinking in terms of mechanism. Free will is an irreducible power, not a machine with parts or set process, and this is supremely so in the case of God, who is Simple, not composed.
Perhaps the worst objection to this position is to say “But this would make God’s decisions arbitrary.” In fact, paying attention to what is being said should lead one to realise that God’s decisions, given his complete freedom to choose between alternative goods, are anything but arbitrary insofar as they are motivated by love and directed towards beauty and truth in every possible case, but are purely libertarian in choosing between states of affairs that are good.
Minor premise: *It’s no more in harmony with the necessary attributes of God’s nature (like love, justice, or mercy), and no more conducive to man’s final happiness, for the sun to rise in the east than it would be for the sun to rise in the west.
Conclusion: a personal God (whose free will choices are determined only by His own nature) would therefore have no reason to choose an eastern sunrise over a western sunrise (but in causing the earth to rotate on it’s axis in one direction or the other, He would be choosing an eastern or western sunrise.) So He would be faced with “an indifference of equipoise among plural alternatives” that would “make choosing itself impossible”?
Where is the flaw in this logic (particularly if you factor in God being timeless, and unable to just pick first thing that comes to His mind, because He sees all options at once)?
How could there be a sufficient reason for the sun to rise in the east, and how could God have chosen this direction without a sufficient reason?
I have already repeatedly explained why the PSR of Leibniz is false. More to the point it has no evidence for it, and is not tautological (true by definition), therefore it is worthless as a basis for any argument at all.
I mentioned something an atheist said on another forum, but he was being sarcastic.
Could God really say “let there be a little black box, and let things uncreated and unstained by me just pop out of it, at times undecided by me, and do things uncaused by me”?
Wouldn’t that be the kind of thing C.S. Lewis said was impossible, even for God?
Yes, because it is nonsense as stated. Once God has created the said box and its potentialities, then all the particles in it that come to be and their interactions are dependent on him for existence and action…Also, it may well be that, taking a block-universe approach, as is common in Physics and comes naturally to classical theism, God chooses/determines the whole-state-reduction of the physical system in conformity with the QM laws he has “written”, which would mean that the system was indeterminate from within Nature but still determined in all material details by God (or by God and other free wills he creates). Nothing in Physics would be affected by such a transcendent determination.