Hi Sturmy
A deceptively tricky and complex little question, I reckon .
My first thought was yes, it is illogical - almost by definition God’s will cannot be thwarted. But surely God permits all sorts of things which are ‘against his will’ - the suffering of the innocent being one obvious example? (It is, incidentally, one of the many illogical absurdities of Calvinism that it tries to have its theological cake and eat it on this one, claiming that everything that happens is according to God’s will, his eternal decree, and yet we are still responsible for our own sin. Absolute cobblers, obviously.)
Now one can get into an exegetical dispute over this: does God ‘will’ that all people be saved or merely ‘desire’ that to happen? (Both are valid translations of the relevant proof-texts.) In human terms the two things are not synonymous, because we desire lots of things we can’t make happen. But if, as the Bible tells us, God can achieve anything he desires, then in effect the two terms are indeed synonymous from God’s perspective.
Now of course, some people will take issue with the basis of your initial assertion that “clearly” God desires or wills all people to be saved. These people are, in my considered opinion - and to misappropriate the famous appraisal of Lord Byron - either mad, bad, or dangerous to know. How any honest person can read the Bible and deny the plain, foundational truth of the texts is totally beyond me.
So, all the above notwithstanding, the 64,000 dollar question is, will God get his way in the end?
And for me the answer is a resounding yes. I believe God is omni-benevolent and omnipotent, and he will save all his children in the end, without compromising their freedom to reject him.
How he will achieve this is another story …
All the best
Johnny