Jason PRATT which knows the bible much better than me says that there will be an unending age AFTER the time of the lake of fire
what is your opinion, thank you all (all which means all as in the bible ) for your help
or he says that there will be a never ending succession of ages
I think the author of Hebrews is specifying the end of the ages of this world, as she talks about Jesus coming once and for all at the end of the ages (which clearly means the age in which Jesus died – this present evil age). To me, this means she sees this age as the end of the ages. But since we’re still (very biblically) looking forward to a Messianic age and an age following that (the new heaven and earth), she must be speaking of a specific subset of all ages. My interpretation would be the ages of this present world.
It’s hard for me to figure out what the bible means by “ages.” The definition seems to vary from place to place, and perhaps it isn’t a very specific word.
I know this isn’t definitive, but I hope it helps you a little in your thought process, Erwan.
Love, Cindy
A basis for seeing 'the end of the ages" in Heb.9:26 as yet future is detailed here:
But now He has been revealed once in the consummation of the ages for the putting away of sin by the sacrifice of Himself. (BLB) (Heb.9:26b)
but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.(NASB)
But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. (ESV)
yet now, once, at the conclusion of the eons, for the repudiation of sin through His sacrifice, is He manifest. (CLV)
“115 athétēsis – properly, annulment (cancellation), i.e. what is rendered “no longer in effect” (literally, “no longer having a place”).”
“…Definition: annulment, nullification, abrogation.”
“…abolition: Hebrews 7:18; Hebrews 9:26”
Did Jesus’ death abolish sin? No, sin, sinners, sinning and sinful inclinations all still exist.
“…the Greek preposition epi, when followed by a dative case, as here, signifies “over,” “on the basis of,” “with a view to.” It was on the basis of a conclusion of the ages, for repudiation of sin through His, sacrifice, that He has been manifested. Epi, when followed by a genitive or accusative case, takes the meaning “on,” or “on to,” but its metaphorical force comes out generally when the dative case is used. Christ was manifested with a view to the ages being concluded, The ages are the times in which sin and enemies are present, requiring the sacrifice of God’s Son. He was manifested so that sin might be set aside through His sacrifice, having in view a conclusion to the ages. He was certainly not manifested at a conclusion of the ages, but His manifestation demands that the eons terminate.” alexanderthomson.blogspot.ca/200 … -hell.html
"26 FOR,]lit. ‘since it were behoving him, to suffer many times from [the] laying-down of the world, but now, once for all, on the full-end of the ages, has he been manifested with a view to a putting away of sin, through his own sacrifice’ " (Robert Young, LL.D., Concise Critical Comments on the New Testament, p.158, also author of Young’s Literal Translation & Young’s Concordance)
books.google.ca/books?id=AaoLyX … 3F&f=false
books.google.ca/books?id=pJ0CAA … 3F&f=false
“We have been asked concerning Hebrews 9:26, which in the Authorized Version reads as follows: “… but now once in the end of the world hath He appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.” It seems to be saying that the “end of the world” occurred when Christ was sacrificed. As A. E. Knoch once said, “This is so impossible that I suppose no one takes it seriously.”* The early (1926, 1930) editions of the Concordant Version, hoping to put sense into an enigmatic passage rendered it as follows: “… yet now, once, has He been manifested through His sacrifice, for the repudiation of sin at the conclusion of the eons.”…Neither the AV or the early CV completely reflected the order of the Greek clauses in English. The sublinear reads now yet once on together-finish of-the eons INTO UN-PLACING OF-THE missing THRU THE SACRIFICE OF-Him He-HAS-beenn-made-APPEAR.”
"…Even when considering a single eon, the “conclusion” {sunteleia, together-finish) of the eon (e.g., Matt. 13:39,40,49; 24:3) is not the absolute end, but a period of time in which the events of that eon culminate. It is compared with a harvest. By definition, an eon’s culmination is that portion of it in which its highest point is attained in order to reach a final result. "The signs of the end time all occur within this conclusion. This is the key to this passage. Christ appeared at the commencement of a period which will continue until the end of the eons. It differs from the previous part of the eons because of its new relation to sin, due to His sacrifice. In a sense, the sacrifice settles the question of sin for the rest of the eons, hence the word ‘conclusion.’ "
"“The scope of the book of Hebrews does not include the present time of grace to the nations. Yet there was to be delay, so that its readers would die in faith instead of receiving the promises. This shows that, at that time, and, indeed, throughout our Lord’s ministries and the book of Acts, the coming eons were imminent. Consequently, it appeared as if our Lord’s sacrifice came just before the kingdom. And is not this, together with the last eon, the harvest season of the eons? With this in mind it is not so very difficult to see that all of the time after His sacrifice is a ‘conclusion’, especially with respect to sin.” "
“…The term “at” (the conclusion of the eons) is not strictly correct; it is only that this is the best idiomatic rendering we can make in the Version. The word is actually “on.” The idea seems to be this: We are to understand that once Christ had been manifested “for [EIS for the purpose of] the repudiation of sin through His sacrifice,” one enters, or comes upon that field of time which we may now view as “the conclusion of the eons.” The eonian times which are encompassed with in the scriptural revelation began to conclude once Christ’s sacrifice was accomplished - when “He died to Sin once for all time” (Rom.6:10).”
“Until then all awaited His sacrifice. The zenith had not been reached. All was still, so to say, “uphill.” But once the great Sacrifice was made, when the Lord declared, “It is accomplished!” (John 19:30), the concluding portion of the eonian times began. The repudiation of sin is achieved through the sacrifice of Christ. It is not realized, however, until God vivifies all mankind, becomes All in all, and reconciles all estranged beings throughout the universe, accomplishing all “through the blood of [Christ’s] cross” (Col.l:20; cp Eph.l:10).”
“Another consideration is that the definite article (“the”) does not appear here in the Greek. It is not a matter of “at the conclusion of the eons” at all, even if we are constrained to put it this way in the Version, not yet having found a better solution while still preserving good diction. The idea is not to point to a particular moment, but to speak of having now entered into, or come upon, the concluding portion of the eons, which is thus set in contrast to the former or preceding portion.”
“The writer of Hebrews certainly did not know how long the present era would continue. Nor are any such considerations in view, whether in Hebrews 9 or else where in this epistle. Instead, the emphasis of Hebrews is that of the typical nature of the animal sacrifices in their representation of the sacrifice of Christ.”
“Even as the blood of calves and he-goats constituted a sufficient and effectual shelter for sin, thus also, the blood of Christ constitutes a sufficient and effectual means for the elimination of sin. If it were not for Christ’s sacrifice, all would be doomed; but because of Christ’s sacrifice, all will be delivered.”
“The viewpoint in Hebrews is antitypical. In other connections it may seem strange to include the rest of this eon and two more in the word ‘conclusion.’ Yet,when we consider the shadow, it becomes evident that the period here, however described, must include all of the time in which the sacrifice is operative, that is, until its work is accomplished.” "
“A concluding portion of a period of time need not necessarily be brief in duration. To say that it must is to confound ordinary usage with essential meaning. Besides, if the testimony of geology and astronomy is true, the first eon (prior to Genesis 1:2) may have been of such great duration that the time from the cross to the consummation actually will prove to be of relatively brief duration.”
"…the Authorized Version will hardly excuse the rendering of Hebrews 9:26. “But now once in the end of the world hath He appeared . . .” cannot be explained on any rational grounds. Christ has appeared, but it certainly was not at the end of the world. The American Revisers change this to “the end of the age’, which is very much better, so far as the word eon is concerned. But it is open to the same objection. The eons have not by any means ended even yet. Christ did not appear at either “the end of the world” or “the end of the ages”. And, we may add, sin has not been “put away” in any plain, intelligible sense.” (U.R., Vol 17, p.267, 1926, A.E.K.)
“The A. V. tells us that Christ appeared “in the end of the world.” This, of course, is impossible, seeing that almost two thousand years have passed since then and the end is not yet. In reality His manifestation marks the commencement of the conclusion of the eons. Just as the offering on the day of shelter, or “atonement” in Israel ushered in a year in which there is cleansing of sin, so the sacrifice of Christ commences the conclusion of the eons in which sin is repudiated. A year in Israel, with its round of typical festivals, corresponds to the conclusion of the eons, in which the antitype of these festivals are found.”
"It is clear that His sacrifice was not at “the end of the world” (A.V.). However, the conclusion of the eon (Matt. 13:39, 40, 49; 24:3) is not the absolute end, but a period of time, which is compared with harvest. The signs of the end time all occur within this conclusion. This is the key to this passage. Christ appeared at the commencement of a period which will continue until the end of the eons. It differs from the previous part of the eons because of its new relation to sin, due to His sacrifice. In a sense, the sacrifice settles the question of sin for the rest of the eons, hence the word “conclusion.* * A more complete explanation of this passage, as rendered in the Concordant Version, is found in Unsearchable Riches, Volume 30, Number (March, 1939).”
“This verse is designed to amplify the grand object of His one appearing, that is, Christ appeared once to offer Himself as a sacrifice in order to put away sin at the end of the ages or eons…Repudiation [of sin] is defined as to have no place for [sin] (Keyword Concordance, p. 246). When the last enemy, death, is put out of business, abolished, discarded, made unproductive (1 Corinthians 15:26), then sin will find no place anywhere in His world since sin reigns only in death (Romans 5:20). In other words, when God abolishes death, He also leaves no place for sin. This He will do at the end of the ages or eons. It is for this purpose that Christ has been manifested in His earthly career; and it is His sacrifice at Calvary’s cross, His sacrifice for sin that makes sin’s repudiation certain, since He is the Lamb of God Which is taking away the sin of the world (John 1:29).”
“…The actual teaching of the passage can be verified as follows: Some current versions of this verse teach that Christ appeared at the end of the ages. Yet according to these same versions Paul, writing years after this appearing, speaks of ages to come (Ephesians 2:7). Thus two “authorized” versions make the apostle Paul flatly contradict what the writer of Hebrews said. Again, the devotees of versions which are not concordant and consistent find themselves involved in another conflict that cannot be reconciled, since their versions teach that Christ “appeared at the end of the ages” while, at the same time, their theology teaches that the ages never end.”
“…The Scriptures distinctly and emphatically teach that the eons had a beginning and will also have conclusion. The Scriptures point to time when the eons were not yet in existence, and they point to time when the eons shall pass away.”
"This one verse (26) of Hebrews 9 takes us, in one sweeping statement, from the disruption of the world to the conclusion of the eons. Though Christ, as Saviour, is now manifest, sin will not be completely eliminated from the universe until the conclusion of the eons. But the acceptance by God of Christ’s offering has made that elimination inevitable. But this wonderful scripture gives further proof that, just as the curtain which veiled God’s presence, was rent in the earthly temple at the precise moment of Christ’s death, so that spiritual veil which obstructed the approach of the celestials to God, was likewise rent; and there is nothing now, save their own spiritual blindness, to prevent them entering into the presence of God, and offering Him the “logical divine service” which is His due from all His creatures. (U.R., Vol 68, p.259-60, 1977, John H. Essex)
“The conclusion of the eons is likewise involved in obscurity in our versions. They suggest that this august event has already occurred at the manifestation of Christ (Heb.9:26). However the words may be translated, the argument of the passage is clear. The high priest went in every year with the blood of others. Not so Christ. He sacrificed Himself once. There was no sacrifice on His part from the disruption, when sin entered, until His manifestation. Neither will there be any further offering needed all the way to the conclusion of the eons, when sin is repudiated. The single suffering of Christ suffices both for the past and future, from sin’s entrance to its exit, from the disruption to the conclusion of the eons, when sin is put away. There is a sense in which sin is “put away” potentially or in the experience of the believer, but in the sense here indicated, as the antithesis of the disruption, it can refer only to the actual removal of sin itself which will occur at the very time indicated, the conclusion of the eons.” concordant.org/expositions/unvei … -eon-eons/
“The Times of the Eons are the scene of sin. They record its entrance and foretell its exit. They had a definite Beginning and will have a definite Consummation…The grand infinitudes of time before the beginning and after the consummation have much in common, chiefly that in the beginning God is All was All: in the consummation He will be All in all. Sin is entirely absent. This cannot be said of any of the eons.”
concordant.org/expositions/the-e … -calendar/
“The power of the blood of Christ will prevail until sin is repudiated. This is at the conclusion of the eons.”
“…(1 Cor. 2:7:before the world [ages]” and Heb. 9:26: “end of the world”, or, as Scofield says, “consummation of the ages” which, by the way, should refer to the future putting away of sin, not the time of Christ’s sacrifice)" U.R., Vol. 61, 1970, p.9, 270, A.E.K.).
The following website articles elaborate upon this interpretation of Heb.9:26 in more detail:
Unsearchable Riches magazine, Vol.5, 1913-14, p.199-203, Alan Burns
Unsearchable Riches magazine, Vol.6, 1914-15, p.258-268, Vladimir Gelesnoff
Unsearchable Riches magazine, Vol.17, 1926, pgs.265-276, Adolph E. Knoch
Unsearchable Riches magazine, Vol.30, 1939, pgs.109-116, Adolph E. Knoch
concordant.org/unsearchable-riches/
1 Cor.10:11. Scripture speaks of the “ends of the ages” or eons (1 Cor.10:11) and an “end of the ages” (Heb.9:26). If the phrase “the ages of the ages” meant ages tumbling endlessly one after the other, as some commentators claim, why does Scripture say the ages end?
There were no ends of any eons present when Paul wrote to the Corinthians (1 Cor.10:11). For Jesus spoke of the present eon in which He lived (Mt13:22; Lk.16:8) and its end (Mt.24:3) which has still not arrived almost 2000 years later. The eon that Jesus was living in, which Paul calls the “present evil eon” (Gal.1:4), of which Satan is god (2 Cor.4:4), began before David (Lu. 1:70) and all the prophets (Ac. 3:21), after the end of the world in the days of Noah, thousands of years before the birth of Christ. So, again, there was no eon ending when Paul wrote 1 Cor.10:11, let alone an end of multiple eons. So what is he referring to in speaking of consummations or ends “of the eons” having been attained (1 Cor.10:11)?
“(The) scriptures state positively that the eons will end: 1 Cor. 10:11… “Now those things befalls them typically, yet it was written for our admonition, to whom the consummations of the eons have attained.” Paul had said what those things are, which befalls them typically, in the preceding verses. Yet “it was written” is in the singular, for “our” (plural) admoniton- the “our” referring to the saints, who are the present believers. “To whom,” referring to the saints, “the consummations of the eons have attained.” The Corinthian saints had attained the consummations of eons in spirit because they were a new creation (2 Cor. 5:17). Some day all will be a new creation (Rev. 21:5). Now, only the saints who are in Christ are of the new creation, but it is God’s goal for the eons to head up all in the Christ, as stated at Eph. 1:9-11. Salvation for all is God’s plan for the eons. Those saints believing now have attained that purpose, so have attained the consummation of the eons.”
theheraldofgodsgrace.org/Abbott/abbot05.htm
“It contains the phrase “the ends of the eons,” or, as we prefer to render it, “the consummations of the. eons” (1 Cor. 10:11), for they not only come to an end, but culminate in the accomplishment of the purpose (Eph. 3:11) for which they were made (Heb. 1:2)…In our own spirits we have an undeniable foretaste that the eons are accomplishing the purpose for which they were made.” (Unsearchable Riches , Vol. 58, p.39-40, A.E.K.).
“in accord with the purpose of the eons, which He makes in Christ Jesus, our Lord” (Eph.3:11)
" which He purposed in Him) 10 to have an administration of the complement of the eras, to head up all in the Christ - both that in the heavens and that on the earth" (Eph.1)
“The eons not only come to an end, but culminate in the purpose (Eph.3:ll) for which God made them (Heb.l:2).” (U.R. Vol. 100, p.132-134, J.R.C.)
“Paul is warning the Corinthians not to become disqualified, but to drink out of their spiritual, following Rock—Christ. A strong incentive to do this is that already the consummations of the ages have attained in spirit to the saints. What the ends of the coming eons will bring has already been made known in some measure to the saints. Every one of the four occurrences of the verb katantao in Paul’s epistles shews that he used it as a meaning to attain in spirit, to draw up alongside in spirit (1. Cor. 10:11; 14:36; Eph. 4:13; Phil. 3:11).”
alexanderthomson.blogspot.ca/200 … -hell.html
“It is not until the consummation when God becomes All in all that His titles can be clearly and fully appreciated. But we, in sense, have been taken ahead of time to the consummation. The manifestation of Christ through His sacrifice, which we see with the eyes of faith, is vitally connected with the conclusion of the eons according to Hebrews 9:26 where we read, “… yet now, once, at the conclusion of the eons, for the repudiation of sin through His sacrifice, is He manifest.” Paul describes us who believe this evangel as those “to whom the consummations of the eons have attained” (1 Cor.lO:ll). The goals toward which God is leading the universe have, in a spiritual way, come ahead of time to us. And one of these goals is the manifestation of Himself to His creatures.” (U.R., Vol 71, p.77, D.H.H.).
“In spirit, Paul brought those under his ministry into the new creation, which is the spiritual counterpart of the eon inaugurated by the new heavens and new earth. It is only thus that the consummations of the eons had already reached the Corinthians.” (U.R. Vol. 100, p.132-134, J.R.C.)…?
“…The evangel of God concerning His Son announces the end of sin and the end of divine indignation. These consummations will be realized throughout the universe when God is All is all, but, in spirit, they have attained to us who are believing (1 Cor. 10:11).” (U.R., Vol 97, p.44, 185, 255, D.H.H.)
If all eons end (1 Cor.10:11), then “eons of eons” (Rev.14:11) and “the eons of the eons” (Rev.20:10) must end. Likewise must the “torment” for these finite time periods also end. What occurs after their end - whether endless torments, endless annihilation or reconciliation to God - is left up to other passages of the Scriptures to reveal.
For elaborations upon this point re 1 Cor.10:11 i’d suggest the following articles & comments:
Unsearchable Riches, Vol 15, p.24-28; Vol 19, p.230; Vol 58, p.39-40; Vol 82, p.238; Vol 97, p.44, 185, 255; Vol 99, p.283; Vol 100, p.131-134 @
Now these things happened to them as an example, but they were written down for our instruction, on whom the end of the ages has come. Now these things happened to them as an example, but they were written down for our instruction, on whom the end of the ages has come. (1 Corinthians 10:11 ESV)
It clearly says, “the end of the ages HAS come” on us. The verb is in the perfect tense. The ages have been completed. The past ages were completed when Christ came on the scene. He began a new age—a new kind of age. It doesn’t say that all ages have come to an end.
It refers specifically to past ages, including those in the old order of things. Similarly in Hebrews 9:26. The “end of the ages” refers to the ages prior to that time.
Christ began something entirely new. There will be other ages to come.
…so that in the coming ages he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. (Ephesians 2:7 ESV)
That’s one way of looking at it, Paidon.
In my posts above points are made that those ages have not yet fully ended, even if they have already begun.
The authors quoted therein, AE Knoch & others, were quite intimately familiar with what the Greek says in those verses.
Is it your position that the “sin” referred to in Hebrews 9:26 has been abolished & that “sin” is also in the “past” & has not existed since c. 30 A.D.?
1 John 1:7 But if we walk in the light as He is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin. 8 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
Not at all!
… he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to do away with sin by the sacrifice of himself.
Jesus “appeared once for all.” It was necessary for Him to appear only once at the end of those past ages to sacrifice Himself and thus begin the process of doing away with sin in those who appropriate the enabling grace made available by His one supreme act—the sacrifice of Himself!
The position by AE Knoch & others quoted in my post above re Heb.9:26 is that:
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No age ended around the time of Christ’s death. The age c. 30 AD was the same age that began after the flood of Noah’s day & will end when Christ returns.
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There wasn’t the end of the ages at c.30 AD since there was still future ages yet to come.
Do you mean 70 AD or 30 AD?
Paidon was interpreting “ages” in Heb.9:26 as having already ended by the time that Hebrews was written. Since the verse speaks of Christ’s sacrifice i’ve assumed a date of 30 AD for when that “end” would have occured, but perhaps he has another date in mind. If Hebrews was written before 70 AD that would rule out that date.
Got it, thanks.