Weird… thought I had posted this earlier, but I guess I got distracted by work
and simply saved it as a draft instead…
I think that’s a fine idea! Must ponder where to put up a request for questions from readers, though… (head’s very fuzzy today, so don’t let me forget I’m going to do this…)
In regard to your other question:
As far as I can tell, 1 Cor 15:20 states, “Yet now Christ has been roused out-from death.” In verse 22, St. Paul continues, “For even as, in Adam, all are dying, thus also, in Christ, all shall be vivified.”
The firstfruit, Christ (hypothetically assuming standard interpretation of the phrase at verse 23, {aparche_ xristos}), has already been roused from the death He willingly shared with Adam (though sinless Himself); but that hardly abrogates Christ being included in the future state where the vivication (or life-ing) of all shall have been completed.
Note, not-incidentally, that back in verse 20 Paul has already spoken of Xristos as a title-name for Jesus, calling Him the exact same term {aparche_}. Grammatically there seems to be no cogent reason to treat the exact same words paired shortly afterward as a phrase, as referring to a special class of not-Christ Christians. Other than a lack of a definite article in the subsequent verse.
But lack of an article by itself is not enough to overweigh all other considerations, especially when there are other grammatic issues more directly pointing in another direction–as is true in this case, so far as I can tell. {aparche_ xristos} as a phrase looks like it’s being used as a compound name-title: “Firstfruit Christ”. I would think the form of {xristos} at least would look substantially different if the phrase was supposed to mean only ‘anointed firstfruits’. Also, wouldn’t {aparche_} and the adjective describing it both have to be plural?? Because in the text, they aren’t plural. (Hindsight note: actually, I’m going to provide a reference a minute from now, where it’s definitely plural Christians to which the term is applying, but the term is still singular. So scotch that objection.
)
Of course, {aparche_} doesn’t strictly mean first-fruit anyway: it means ‘from-origin-er’. Even though it seems to be used everywhere else in the NT to refer to the first-fruit offering (and thence to something else by analogy), here I expect St. Paul is making a sort of typological pun, applying the more literal meaning of the term to Christ; which would make excellent sense, since he has already just used the exact same term as a title-description for Christ.
The standard interpretation fits very well into the typical notion of the first-fruit harvest offering being given back to God in gratitude for this sign that the full harvest is on the way. Multiple harvests of multiple kinds of crops are not typically in view in first-fruit analogies.
Since Gene mentioned “Gregory”, this is how Gregory understands the application, too, including as a sign of universalistic doctrine.
From p 118 in TEU [with JRP’s comments in brackets]: “This leads us to another clue within Revelation [meaning RevJohn] to support the universalistic interpretation of [Rev] 21:24-27: the fact that the 144,000 are described as being offered as “first-fruits to God and the Lamb” ([Rev] 14:4). The 144,000 represent the redeemed multitude drawn from every nation–i.e., the church. They are said to be the first-fruits. [But the term is singular in Greek, by the way; so I’ll allow that the term need not be plural in regard to Christians, which takes down one of my objections.
Notably, Gregory continues treating the term as a singular despite its plural form in English. The reason for that, though, is coming up next…
] This is an agricultural metaphor. The first-fruits was the first sheaf of the harvest, which was offered to God and which functioned as a guarantee that the rest of the harvest was on the way. Paul speaks of Christ’s resurrection as the first-fruits (1 Cor 15:20 [not our verse under contention, which is v 23, btw–unless Dr. Jones is also arguing that the ref in v20 is also supposed to mean the church and not Christ Himself!]), but here the church itself [emphasis original] is offered as a first-fruits. This is best interpreted to imply that the nations are the rest of the harvest, which will be harvested at the right time. The church is a guarantee that they will come in.”
So yes, the term can certainly be applied to Christians. But the distinction when it does is to all Christians as first-fruits, not to some elite group of Christians as first-fruits. And in 1 Cor 15, Paul has already just recently applied the term to Christ, in what I will suppose (for now) to be a non-disputed usage. Consequently, when Paul goes on to give the order as {aparche_ xristos} (which is not possessive, btw–it is not “Christ’s first-fruits”); and then those who belong to Christ (possessive form) in His presence; and then the consummation (whenever He may be giving up the kingdom to His God and Father, which St. Paul then goes on to talk about)… {inhale}
… it would seem better to apply the same usage there.
At most, if those who have already died and are being resurrected before other Christians are in the 1 Cor list, they’d be in the second squadron: those who are Christ’s in His presence.
The standard interpretation also happens to fit very well with the triumphal procession theme: first the conqueror, then the loyal and honored troops, then the subjugated enemies. The larger complexity is that the loyal troops are themselves previously-subjugated-enemies of the conqueror, who gives Himself in service to all; consequently, there is no reason for any of us to look down on the members of the third squadron. (On the contrary, per many Synoptic parables and sayings, that’s a clear way to get kicked to the back of the line!
) Christ intends to offer us all in subjection with Himself to His father, after the treading of His wrath is complete, so that God may be all in all.