Justinian used ateleutetos (not aionios!) against Origen

[Alex_Smith]

There’s a common Universalist argument (e.g. tentmaker.org/books/prevailing/upd21.html) that when Justinian condemned Origen, that he couldn’t just use aionios (because that was too ambiguos), so Justinian used ateleutetos. Is this valid reasoning?

… Justinian is taking the harder position and using the stronger term. And indeed, this is the case: the phrase comes from Justinian’s *Contra Originem *104.23, and the emphatic point about eternal damnation is Justinian’s own. But Justinian is referring to a particular text: Origen’s comments on Ezekiel 13.793, where he speak of ateleutoi basanoi, or torments. But in this passage, Origen says that this is what the prophets threaten; he does not endorse the position in his own voice. Origen’s own position was not in doubt, of course.