The Evangelical Universalist Forum

Love-Defined?

I read this today about the different types of Love that God exhibits. Is there any biblical proof for this?

I’m fuzzy about whether or to what extent these count in Biblical witness as different types of love, or whether they count instead as God’s love (agape_) being given to different objects under various circumstances.

I am sure from a metaphysical perspective, on the other hand, that even philos (or eros??!) given by God toward an object must be contingent upon agape toward that object. We routinely understand at our own level that philos or eros without agape is at best handicapped and sometimes (often? always?!) even sinful. I see no reason why we should expect less than agape from the God Who Himself is essentially agape, even if the agape is specially manifested as one of the properly derivative forms of love.

Note that this has close topical links to trinitarian theism per se. And also with the two-natures doctrine of Christ, come to think of it: if God becomes fully human He is still fully God; if God loves in a philos or eros fashion, He still fully loves in agape, too. We should aspire to no less ourselves, as St. Paul teaches in 1 Cor 13. Who are we to turn to, greater or other or less than God, for the fulfilling of this aspiration!?–what spirit less or other than greater than the Holy Spirit?! (Or is the agape of 1 Cor 13 some merely human and imperfect love that we are called to aspire to as the more excellent way?!)

I think that the point was that, sure God loves everyone but he only loves some enough to save them; electoral and other is a general sense; humanitarian.

You have given me some great insight Jason. Thanks