The Evangelical Universalist Forum

Matthew 7:21 never enter heaven?

Jesus’ message is universal and applies to all mankind. Sin causes death and if we don’t heed God’s word we perish. I don’t see that this has changed.

I’m not sure what I quoted, that made you think of me…Perhaps to footnote your references and statements?.. And perhaps to reflect, on thoughts of the tribulation and Z-Hell (1, 2, 3, 4)?

If folks would focus on solid theology - like this… then they would be too frightened to promote, “offbeat” theologies here! :wink:

Oh groan… so you literally are a universalist, even to the degree you can’t perceive distinctions…

Mt 17:27 Nevertheless, lest we offend them, go to the sea, cast in a hook, and take the fish that comes up first. And when you have opened its mouth, you will find a piece of money; take that and give it to them for Me and you.”

Is this how you pay taxes?

WE ALL FREEKIN PERISH ANYWAY :roll_eyes:

But you and most evangelicals put constraining boundaries on “what Jesus’ message was.” Death was death then and it is the same thing to us 2000 years later. YOU DIE.

Death is Death. Pure and simple. So now how do you explain perish beyond BEING DEAD?

Please don’t say going to hell or purgatory…

My view: we will all be resurrected bodily, stand before the judgment seat of our Lord Jesus, and then be ushered into life everlasting, in whatever direction He knows is best for us individually. This is known as hope. It is, I believe, also everywhere taught in that Old book.
That’s my view, anyway.

How does that happen? Here on earth? In some sort of heaven? When?

And I would appreciate any now a day references to such happening?

When Jesus returns at His second coming.

It’s been believed for 2000 years, been written about in thousands of commentaries, in other words you can find it yourself, just as I did. The problem is that whatever is said, you and I differ in our approach to understanding the Scripture.
Okay, Dave, once again you are dodging my “simple” question.
Wrong. You know that if I turn you to 1 Cor 15, or any others that treat of this, we will end up right here.
Read TW’s book on the resurrection, then we’ll palaver.
Hey, if you don’t have the same view, that is your choice.
Still love ya, bro.

This is Paidion responding to Chad’s “questions”.

Or before that occurs, perhaps in Z-Hell (1, 2, 3, 4) Chad?

Yes it is a very long line, but there will be refreshments and old National Geographic magazines to read, just like in my Dentist’s office.
Seriously, I have no idea what the logistics are going to be. Way above my pay grade. :grin:

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It’s probably a logical thing for a futurist to ponder, but the fulfilled view understands 2 things here…

  1. the judgment made was relative to rewards given, NOT eternal destinies as per typical evangelicalism, and…
  2. there wouldn’t have been any exhausting crowd that couldn’t have been managed as this judgment was also pertinent ONLY to those of that age — that age has passed.

Of course, that doesn’t preclude some semblance of judgment working for each individual as we die… BUT that is not generally the assumed concept of that particular verse in question.

Yes sir, and you (and those who believe the same) will I say believe it forever more. But, you continue to ignore the seriousness and the immediacy of the scriptures. As it applied to the ‘there and then.’

So ten thousand years later you (and those who follow your thinking) will be still waiting and wondering… All the while the very verbiage of the text is saying it has happened.

Yep but Perriman says it in a quite interesting way: https://www.postost.net/2018/12/evangelicals-narrative-historical-method-three-questions

"How am I saved from my sins?

The narrative-historical argument about salvation is, first, that Jesus died for the sins of Israel, and secondly, that his death abrogated the Law that for centuries had reserved membership of the people of God for circumcised descendants of Abraham and their families, plus a few proselytes. Jews who believed in Jesus were saved from the destruction that was coming on second temple Judaism; Gentiles were saved from a wicked, Godless, and obsolescent paganism. Both groups now had a share or inheritance in the life of the age that would come, when Jesus would be revealed to the nations.

My answer to the question, therefore, is that because Jesus died for the sins of Israel, I am free to become part of the redeemed and transformed historical people of God. Because of Jesus’ faithfulness to the point of death on a Roman cross, God is prepared to forgive my sins and give me his Holy Spirit if I too make the confession that Jesus is Lord, seated at the right hand of the Father, sovereign over history.

So the key to my “salvation”, I think, is the connection between Jesus’ obedience to the Father in his mission to Israel, which resulted in his death, and the Father’s willingness to forgive the sins of those who believe in his Son in the context of the whole prophetic-apocalyptic narrative—not because of anything that they have done to merit it but because of what Jesus did.

I like it. :smiley:

I have to say that Perriman is for me a stepping stone (and a very healthy and important side study) to the integral understanding of God as proposed by the Presence folks. http://www.presence.tv/episodes/

Just a observation.

Thanks.

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Says who?

Stop right there. You are disparaging the guy. Show me your paper as to your belief. The guy has killer posts,

Post your stuff man. You want us to hear you then post some stuff worth reading.
:roll_eyes:

Davo, THEY were not the ONLY generation to be held accountable for distorting the word of God. They too suffered the same fate for disobedience.

People no longer religionized the blessing of God after Jesus? And were they not held accountable?

MM, yes, we all die eventually. However, when speaking of death, I believe the writers of the Bible are often referring to a barren wasteland unfit for habitation.

Can you quote me from this thread where you get that idea? I.E. where I’ve posted anything implying that to enter the “kingdom of the heavens” means to go to heaven?

Of course if one enters the “kingdom of America” such a person may be entering “America” so “America” & the “kingdom of America” (nation of America) are one & the same. Who would think by “entering the kingdom of America” you were entering a “reign of America”? There is a Greek word for “kingdom” & a separate Greek word for “reign”. If God meant “reign” why would He say “kingdom”?

Is entering the “kingdom of the heavens” equal to entering “heaven”? Or is it referring to a kingdom that is heavenly in some way, such as the millennial kingdom of Christ on earth?

I got this today, from the Patheos evangelical newsletter. Since we have some “unusual” theologies here, this might fit into this thread:

Yes, that is correct, Death as my understanding in the Genesis God/Adam dialog meant being away from God or as you say, a wasteland. A place where God was not very happy. Adam’s ‘death’ was not physical but spiritual. But it had physical ramifications.
We are told that in essence man would need to toil… Bad ass word when it comes from the creator God. :wink:

Adam lived to be what 900+ years old. Gotta say God loved the dude.

Not sure I dealt with your post but have to say that I do not believe in such a thing as a barren wasteland. As a believer in the historical view of scripture, God has done all through the Christ to assure us all (after the fact) that we are well taken care of in the view of the Father. And all of the OT in my view points to that.

I would conjecture that most of the barren wasteland verbiage (?) has to do with the Jews and the destruction of the Temple. But without actual verses, it is hard to say. If you are insinuating to make a case for some sort of destruction / place of correction post mortem then I’ll differ with you.

Just a thought.

My question wasn’t about anything to do with Lancia but where you got the following idea in the quote below from anything I’ve said in this thread about the “kingdom of the heavens” (Mt.7:21):