The Evangelical Universalist Forum


Today, there will have been many resurrection hymns sung throughout North America. All of them are worded as if Jesus raised Himself from death. For example, “Up from the grave He arose, with a mighty triumph oe’r His foes. He arose a victor from the dark domain…”

However in the New Testament, it is stated at least 13 times that God raised Him from the dead. There are others, too, that speak of God raising Him, but they may not be referring to His resurrection.

In the king James, we also find references to “He is risen” but in the Greek, these are in the passive voice, and should NOT be translated as “He has risen” but rather “He has been raised.” The ESV and the NASB so translates them. To say that “He has been raised” again implies that God raised Him (who else?) This expression occurs at least 16 times in the New Testament.

In Acts 10:41, most translations read as “After He arose from the dead.” But the Greek has it, “After the raising of Him from the dead.” The Greek implies that someone raised Him from the dead. Who else but God?

There is only one passage in the entire New Testament that can be interpreted to say that Jesus raised Himself from the dead. It is found in John 2:19-22:

Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” The Jews [who took Him literally] then said, "It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and will you raise it up in three days? But He was speaking of the temple of His body. When, therefore, He was raised from the dead, His disciples remembered that He had said this, and they believed the scripture and the word that Jesus had spoken.

Could Jesus have been prophesying? Could these words have been those of the Father speaking through Him?

In any case, here is the matter that puzzles me. Why is there not even one resurrection hymn which states that God raised Jesus from the dead, while the New Testament has so many statements that affirm that God raised Him? For the passage states “When… He WAS RAISED from the dead, His disciples remembered that He had said this…”

Let’s Sing:

He is Lord; He is Lord
God has raised Him from the dead
And He is Lord.
Every knee shall bow;
Every tongue confess
That Jesus Christ is Lord.

Don, Did you write that? :smiley:

No, I didn’t write it. But I changed the second line from “He is risen from the dead” to “God has raised Him from the dead.”
We sing this chorus fairly frequently at our church.

However, here is a song that I did write based on the Revised Standard Version of Philippians 2:5-12. It may be sung to the tune of “Jesus Lover of my Soul.”

Not copyrighted. Feel free to use it for the glory of the Anointed One!

Even so Don, you’ll note that verse 22 says… “When, therefore, He was raised size=85[/size]* from the dead,…*” — this was still the work of the Father.

Even where Jesus claims “authority” to lay down his life of his own accord and to equally take it up again this authority is derived from his Father…

Can’t we say Lazarus arose from the grave (at Jesus’ command of course)? I’m not sure the hymn example above implies that Jesus was his own agent of resurrection, but I take your point in a more general sense.

Yesterday, there was a chorus of the response “He has risen” in my church. (I got it ‘wrong’ and responded ‘He IS risen’, but perhaps it could be said that ‘He HAS risen’ does not imply that the agent of returned life was anyone other than God the Father. God bestows life to a new glorified body (laying on the slab in the tomb) and then Jesus rises (or sits up).
If someone said “Look at Tabitha, she’s got out of bed! (she has risen)” it doesn’t imply that she was her own agent of resurrection.

P.S. any lack of response from me is because I may be out of internet for a little while. God bless

Right. You may have missed the fact that I also quoted the same clause in my post from which you quoted.