Organization of Approaches to Aionios

[roofus]

I think that it would be interesting to catalog what the various understandings of aionios are across the theological spectrum.
And to catalog the reasoning behind each, sorting out what is merely asserted without reasoning (beyond quoting experts without knowing their reasoning).

[Alex_Smith]

I agree, that would be helpful.

[SLJ]

Great idea!
Sonia

[roofus]

Great ideas without work are dead ideas Maybe I can set aside some time!

[Alex_Smith]

Where are you getting your definitions of aionios? Not to put too fine a point on it, but I’m looking at five Greek dictionaries, four of which are for the NT, and none of them list your definitions. All of them do, however, list “eternal” as the sole or primary definition. None of them even hint that aionios is qualitative rather than quantitative. So on what basis do you diverge from these authorities?

I wish we had an organised list of the best approaches.

Unfortunately, aionios is still being hotly debated as it’s seen as one of the proofs of ECT. However, here are a few sources and comments that might be helpful:
Dr. David Konstan’s Terms for Eternity: Aiônios and Aïdios in Classical and Christian Texts

A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and other Early Christian Literature, 3rd Edition (BDAG) also lists possible definitions which aren’t infinite durations.

As a friend said, “I like the concluding definition for aionios found in The Vocabulary of the Greek Testament (edited by James Hope Moulton and George Milligan): “In general, the word depicts that of which the horizon is not in view, whether the horizon be at an infinite distance, or whether it lies no farther than the span of a Caesar’s life.” That is, the word stands for a “hidden” and indefinite duration of time, whether past or future. This seems to be the meaning of olam in the Hebrew Bible, and since aion and aionion seem to have been employed by the inspired writers of the NT as the Greek equivalents of this single Hebrew word, this definition would be most consistent. And as it seems likely that Jesus would’ve spoken Hebrew or Aramaic (at least, when he was speaking to his disciples, like in Matt 25:46), the word he would have used would have either been olam or alam.” See also owlam.com/index.html

Talbott is the best at explaining the reasons it’s probably qualitative. e.g. see Talbott on Matthew 25:41, 46?

Another friend said, “Having looked the word up in secular and other sources, I have concluded that the best English translation of the adjective is “lasting”. One secular source used it as part of a description of a stone wall. Also, the Jewish historian Josephus, used the word in reference to the length of the prison sentence of a person called “Jonathan”. It has been said that that it was a 3-year sentence… hardly “eternal”. Though the word doesn’t mean “eternal” it sometimes is used in reference to that which is eternal. There is a Greek word, “αἰδιος”, which does mean “eternal”. The word occurs in Romans 1:20 with reference to God’s “eternal power and deity”. If Matthew had understood Jesus to refer to “eternal punishment” and “eternal life” in Matthew 25:46, why did he choose the Greek adjective “αἰωνιος”? Why did he not choose “αἰδιος”?”