I just had a very startling thought - and I’m just going to post on what I was thinking:
I have been contemplating annihilationism and universalism recently - and I while I was reading a related article I was thinking, what if the second resurrection is subsequent to the second death - and what might that mean?
So then, when Revelation 20:6 basically indicates that the one sharing in the first resurrection will not be overpowered by the second death, does this indirectly clarify that the ones who experience the second death are the same ones who (after the second death) undergo the second resurrection??
If so, that would seem to indicate that the people who experience the second death / lake of fire are resurrected at the second resurrection.
I may need more time to fully explain what I’m thinking, but I feel like I just received clarity, or I’m just mistaken - i’m not sure which one.