First of all, YOU also brought up FULL PRETERISM in your article. Secondly, I am simply responding to where the thread was going. You don’t have to like it but it is was it is.
Good point. Forgive me, I meant no personal reprimand, but just trying to bring the post back to the title. Though my external article does branch out to an even larger discussion. I would greatly appreciate your careful response to the article if you have time. My email is jeff@dgjc.org. I know there can be a lot of passion on these point, so carry on as the Lord leads.
Signing off for a while as my wife and I head out to celebrate our 25th anniversary 
Here are now three articles in my book that have been revised as a result of discussion in this post…
dgjc.org/optimism/revelation-20-10
dgjc.org/optiomism/eschatology-is-the-study-of-future-good-news
Thanks for the help,
Jeff
What you have expressed is not my belief. I disbelieve that wrongdoing can be “paid for” either by oneself or by anyone else.
To whom do you think Christ “paid” for our sins? God? Does God demand “payment”? Did Christ’s death “satisfy” Him, so that He can let you off the hook scott free? If you thought one of your sons had gone against the rules of the family, and your other (totally innocent) son had volunteered to be punished “in his place” would you feel justice had been served by punishing the innocent son?
Jesus died to provide enabling grace to overcome wrong doing. The reason He died is clear from the following passages:
I Peter 2:24 He himself endured our sins in his body on the tree, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. By his wounds you have been healed.
II Corinthians 5:15 And he died for all, that those who live might live no longer for themselves but for him who for their sake died and was raised.
Romans 14:9 For to this end Christ died and lived again, that he might be Lord both of the dead and of the living.
Titus 2:14 who gave himself for us to redeem us from all iniquity and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good deeds.
Heb 9:26 …he has appeared once for all at the end of the age for the abolition of sin by the sacrifice of himself.
I have never expressed belief in “yet more penalty and punishment to be paid for your sin (beyond what Calvary accomplished) postmortem via a ‘lake of fire’.” Look at my signature statement again! I disbelieve that God punishes at all (in the sense of inflicting penalties). I do believe God will give post-mortem correction. Both fire and salt are purifying agents.
Light is fire to darkness. Love is fire to hate. Every hidden thing will be brought to light. Everything brought to light becomes light.
Hi Paidion… thanks for clarifying.
What space (if any) might your position give the lake of fire in your “post-mortem correction” 
Fire is a purifying agent. Fire also consumes things. This fire of God may be a symbolic way of describing God’s correction of the unrighteous. God Himself consumes all the evil in a person, and purifies him.
For our God is a consuming fire (Hebrews 12:29)
I guess my query is… what is the “scriptural” basis (to show by text) for legitimately transposing said texts, the likes of Mk 9:49; 1Cor 3:13-15; Heb 12:29 etc, beyond the realm in which such were declared (i.e., to the here-and-now) to a “postmortem” reality of which the texts don’t actually suggest or indicate?