No, Christ commanded them to search the Scriptures:
Joh 5:39** Search the scriptures**, for in them you are supposing you have life eonian, and those are they which are testifying concerning Me,
Also, eternal life is not found in the heart. God has to give eonian life. If He has to give it, it does not originally inhere within the individual’s heart.
Since Satan is neither a relative**, nor **a friend of mine, I don’t want to devote discussion to his fate. Especially when - because of Halloween - the SciFy channel is devoting an entire several days - to monsters, zombies, vampires, etc.
I’m sure I could find, other alternative explanations. It just shows that other Church groups hold this viewpoint. And probably have sound Biblical explanations, how this might be accomplished. But I have a priority - with the horror movies.
Eusebius… you’ve stated this a few times now and it is simply not correct, it is not true. This was not a “command” as you say. Jesus was pointing to the fact that they (you, 2nd person plural) missed in their search of the Scriptures the one to whom such pointed; himself. It was NOT a command, i.e., it is NOT in the vocative.
It doesn’t matter what the United Church of God believes if it is not in line with what the Scriptures teach as to the durative aspect of the lake of fire.
Just as “ages of the ages” means the greatest ages of all the ages which went before, thus the Holies of the Holies are the two greatest Holies of the Holy parts of the tabernacle the high priest went through. Just as “Holies of the Holies” does not imply "Holies tumbling upon Holies for infinity, thus "ages of the ages does not imply that idea.
Satan being tormented proves he is not destroyed in the lake of fire. Torment has to do with the mind, not the body. His mind is tormented by the thought of being incarcerated for so long a time. But one day he will be reconciled to God.
I’m sure you could find plenty of alternative explanations. But that does not make them correct. One has to be correct.
That’s an assumption. And everybody thinks they (i.e. individual, theologian, church, etc.), has the correct doctrine. Which is why Christianity is a house divided - at times (more often,then not). But if you believe you have discovered the truth - that everyone else has missed - fine. If it works for you - run with it.
Well it just makes sense . . . if Satan is tormented while he is in the lake of fire for the final two eons, it stands to reason he is not destroyed. It is not a matter of me assuming I am correct on this matter. I just don’t see how I am wrong on this specific matter. If you think I am, please show me how I am wrong.
But since you keep slapping my face, with a white glove…challenging me to a duel…
Let me become what Hannibal, of the A-Team says:
And I’m sure I could find other theologian’s and/or Church’s explanations. But I think those embracing conditional immortality, would say Satan and the Unholy angels - are also annihilated. And they would have reasonable scriptural explanations, to counter any objections you make. But horror movies take priority.
But let’s explore a sampling of explanations - shall we
For example, an answer in the Christian Forums thread shared this:
An answer using imagery:
And we see that some that embrace annihilation, might side with your literal view:
An answer from language (This is the S**cientific American **version, of the United Church of God’s, Readers Digest version):
And we can even find an explanation from a group considered a cult (a position I agree with). But that doesn’t mean, they can’t come up, with a reasonable explanation. The Jehovah Witnesses at What Is the Lake of Fire? Is It the Same as Hell or Gehenna?:
And even if we argue for a literal long period of time, the article also says this:
.
A full and thorough response, from a conditional immortality perspective, is found at A Primer on Revelation 20:10. Let me quote a little, what the article is about:
Like I’m told you before. There are reasonable biblical explanations, to your question, position and bible verse - regarding Satan.
As seems to be your standard MO you gravitate to the fringe… <ἐραυνάω> epaunaō is in the ‘indicate’ mood though can on occasion be rendered in the ‘imperative’, but the standard and vast bulk of translators in the instance of Jn 5:39 favour the ‘indicate’ mood BECAUSE of the structure of the rest of the sentence. THEY understand this as is evidenced by the vast bulk of translations demonstrated HERE.
Not only this… the “imperative” does NOT necessitate “a command” as you dictate but rather demonstrates an entreaty or an imploring as in… “ye must be born again” or “we implore you, be ye reconciled to God”. These are NOT “commands”!
Actually John 5:39 “Search the Scriptures” is in the imperative mood per Thayer’s Greek Lexicon for that verse and your quote by Tasker agrees with me that it is imperative. Geesh!:
Thayer’s Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 2045: ἐρευνάω
ἐρευνάω, ἐρεύνω; 1 aorist ***imperative ***ἐρεύνησον; (ἡ ἐρευνᾷ a search); from Homer down; to search, examine into: absolutely, John 7:52; τί, John 5:39; Romans 8:27; 1 Corinthians 2:10; Revelation 2:23 with which passage cf. Jeremiah 11:20; Jeremiah 17:10; Jeremiah 20:12; followed by an indirect question, 1 Peter 1:11 (2 Samuel 10:3; Proverbs 20:27). The form ἐραυνάω (which see in its place) T Tr WH have received everywhere into the text, but Lachmann only in Revelation 2:23. (Compare: ἐξερευνάω.)
In explaining the imperative we have this:
"The Imperative Mood:
yeah… ONLY to the degree that you couldn’t get past the first [size=150]10[/size] words of his quote… oops!
Let me furnish you with the rest of Tasker’s quote beyond what I’ve already given the first time; hopefully you can track this to the end…
(emphasis mine).
The word… <ὅτι> hoti is better rendered “because” or “since” or possibly “that” as opposed to the introduced “for” as Tasker notes.
I also note your blueletterbible link says this… “The majority of all verbs used in the New Testament occur in the indicative mood.”
Well… to give you the EXACT rendering of Jn 5:39 <ἐρευνατε> ereunate or it’s variant <ἐραυνᾶτε> eraunate… HENCE the favoured “indicative” mood rendered the bulk of all those translations at that LINK I supplied above… did you even bother to check them out?
Believing the bible is easy… your amateurish and convoluted contortions thereafter, less so!
That is not at all as definite as you seem to think. The second person plural ending in the imperative mode is exactly the same as the ending in the indicative mode. Thus from the ending alone, one cannot determine which it is. Virtually all the Greek sources I have consulted consider the word to be in the indicative mode. This seems to fit the context better.
Jesus says to the Jews, "You search the scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life. (vs 39,40)
The Jews think they will find eternal life in the scriptures. Those scriptures bear witness to Jesus the Messiah. Yet these same Jews will not come to Jesus in order to acquire eternal life.
Why would Jesus tell them to search the scriptures because they THINK that in them they have eternal life. If they THINK that, then they are already searching the scriptures.
The following version translate the statement this way or similarly, considering the verb to be in the infinitive mode, “You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life.”
ASV, Darby, Diaglot, EMTV, ESV, HCSB, LO, NASB, NKJV, Philips, Rotherham, RSV, WEB, Williams, WNT, YLT
I have found only four versions that translate the verb as if it is in the imperative mode: AV, Douay, Murdoch, and RWebster.
In my opinion, the context demands that it be translated as ins the indicative mode.
Which Bible? Is “the Bible” for you the AV (King James Version)?
Do you believe 1 John 5:7?
For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
This sentence originally appeared as a note added to the text. Later, in the 9th century, it was brought into the text itself.
I’ve always understood John 5:39 to mean that Jesus is rebuking the Pharisees for their blind reading of the Scriptures. They read the Scriptures, but missed the point. And this argument might be missing the point as well. Someone earlier in the thread seemed to be making the point, if I understood correctly, that reading the Bible is of little or no value to get to know God. How ridiculous! Regardless of how one understands John 5:39 there are plenty of other verses that exhort us to read the Scriptures and that the Scriptures are valuable to know God. The Bible is God’s wonderful love letter to us! Certainly Jesus is not telling us to abandon the Scriptures in John 5:39. Instead, reading the Scriptures without the Holy Spirit and without a sincere desire to seek God can get one into trouble. That is what the Pharisees did. They used the Scriptures wrongly to justify themselves and condemn others, and perhaps to argue without even understanding why.
I couldn’t agree more Jeff.
My only reason for challenging Eusebius’ claim on that particular text in the first place was because he keeps making this bold “Christ commanded” assertion in support of further argument… and it just cannot legitimately be sustained; as I’ve shown by others more au fey with the texts than any of us. Even Paidion and see the issue at hand.
True, sparring can get a bit pointless… guilty as charged.
I may be guilty as charged as well. I was not suggesting that reading the Scriptures has little or no value. As I mentioned earlier, they are helpful and instructive in giving us a certain knowledge of God. I agree that Jesus was actually criticizing them.They had become self-righteous, thinking that because they studied the Scriptures, they knew it all, or as you mention, they were trying to justify themselves while condemning others. Understanding and wisdom are gained through experience of life. This is why Jesus exhorts us to be servants to one another; to be the living word of God as well.
I believe as do other Greek scholars that it is in the imperative mood. And that the Greek Scholars state:
In explaining the imperative we have this:
"The Imperative Mood:
Whether some say it is in the indicative or imperative is actually leading away from the issue which was that if Jesus told them to search the Scriptures or told them “you search the Scriptures,” the point is that whatever they did in searching the Scriptures they thought they had life but they didn’t and Jesus was telling them that the very Scriptures they search spoke of Him. They couldn’t see Him in the Scriptures they were searching. Why? Because God didn’t give it to them to see as He did to others to see. They do not have a free will to see it. God has to give the understanding/insight/truth about Christ to them. THAT IS THE POINT I AM MAKING in this thread that has to do with freewillism and God’s sovereignty.
As a side note, in order to justify others here who say “Search the Scriptures” can be in the imperative mood:
This morning I searched Bagsters’s Analytical Greek Lexicon which says “search” in: “Search the Scriptures” is imperative as does Randolph O. Yeager’s “The Renaissance New Testament” but yet another work stated it is indicative. It seems there are issues with this text in the original mss. Interesting that I find more that say it is imperative than indicative. So it is possible it can be taken both ways. There, now we can all get along, smile and have a happy day knowing we are both right.
I have heard over the years that we should not read the Bible and that those who do are committing idolatry. They always use the scripture (interesting that they use a scripture to warn us about reading the Scriptures ) in 2 Corinthians 3:6 that “the letter is killing.” So they take that out of its contextual setting and build a wrongful premise out of it. It is actually concerning the letter of the law that is killing for it is death chiseled in stone in the very next verse.