Hi guys. I need your help as usual. As some of you know, I’ve been struggling (as usual) with my faith. I hadn’t gone to my local Baptist church for about six weeks as I felt so flat. Anyway, the mininster called round to see how I was, and I’m sure this meeting was a divine appointment. Having not had the chance to speak about any ‘meaty’ theologicl issues with the minister, I wasn’t sure what he was about, although I suspected he probably believed in annihaltion as he never preaches about hell etc. To cut a long story short, I mentioned how I struggle with the orthodox doctrine of hell and ECT, and he asked if I’d read a book by Rob Bell called ‘Love Wins’. Well, I was blown away, having just read it again a few days beforehand. And so our meeting went very well indeed and I would say he is at least a hopeful universal reconciliationst like myself. I went back to church last Sunday and everyone was so loving towards me, it was great, and this morning’s service was great too. There are two guys there that I’ve been corresponding with about hell and ECT, and as related in another thread, one of them is now convinced that ECT is not true. I’ve now recently emailed him some UR verses to consider and he’s in the process of writing up a response that refutes UR. I got to mention UR this morning to the other brother who gave the talk today, and hence why I’d like a ‘short’ or concise case for UR- an overview of the Bible references for UR that I can present to them. Both men are very busy and so I don’t want to type up too much stuff as this may be off- putting to them.
Here was how I presented my UR reasoning to one of them who is in the process of replying. If you think it’s a good argument, I’ll send it to the other brother:
(I’d initially asked Neil what he thought 1 Cor 15:22 meant. Neil replied that this was referring to ‘those in Christ’, and so here is my way of introducing UR:
*’'I’m trying to determine if Paul is only referring to ‘those in Christ’ when he mentions ‘all will be made alive’. That is certainly how orthodox Christianity understands this verse, but some other verses have got me wondering if the ‘all’ who are affected by Adam’s act, are the same ‘all’ that are affected by Christ’s act. Here is how my thinking has been going as I read the Bible:
All humans die because of Adam’s act , whether they want to or not ie Adam’s act is thrust upon man against man’s will. This is backed up in Romans 8:20 : ‘Against its will, all creation was subjected to God’s curse. But with eager hope,’.
So is it possible that the 'last Adam’s ‘act’ is going to affect ALL mankind and creation, in the same way that the first Adam’s act did ie it will be applied universally? Romans 5:18 seems to be saying this quite clearly: ‘Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men.’ Jesus also, said an interesting thing about what would happen when He had accomplished His ‘act’:
‘But I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself.’ John 12:32.
Is God reconciling all men or only some men:
‘For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross.’ Colossians 1:19,20.
The idea that God is going to save every single human eventually (each in his own order) is so fantastical that maybe, like me upon hearing this for the first time, you think how ridiculous such an idea is. It was only once I kept reading the verses like the ones above, that they did seem to be saying that God is reconciling all things, and to think no one will be lost and that Christ’s act can undo every consequence of Adam’s act and affect every single human, is actually the best ‘good news’ I’ve ever heard, and so I’m very much hoping this is the case, but I may be wrong. I am sure that the ‘peace’ that Christ secures as mentioned in Col 1:20, can not allow for the majority of humans to be kept conscious perpetually for the sole purpose of experiencing torment- that would not be peace surely? That would mean that Adam’s act is more successful in damning people than the second Adam’s act is, of saving people. An interesting thought.
Here are a few more verses that seem to support what I’ve been saying:
‘For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.’ Romans 11:32.
'It is written: “‘As surely as I live,’ says the Lord, ‘every knee will bow before me; every tongue will confess to God.’” Romans 14:11
‘He has showered his kindness on us, along with all wisdom and understanding. God has now revealed to us his mysterious plan regarding Christ, a plan to fulfill his own good pleasure. And this is the plan: At the right time he will bring everything together under the authority of Christ—everything in heaven and on earth.’ Ephesians 1:8-10.
‘This is good, and pleases God our Savior, who wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.’ 1 Tim 2:3,4. (Does God get what He wants?).
‘That is why we labor and strive, because we have put our hope in the living God, who is the Savior of all people, and especially of those who believe.’ 1 Tim 4:10.
When you have time, let me know what you think. There’s no rush.
Bye for now
Catherine ‘’*
What do you think guys?