The Evangelical Universalist Forum

Jesus said FEW would find the way that leads to life

Studentoftheword.

I have asked you to give one verse in the Gospels where Jesus Taught Universalism and you have yet to do so. Maybe, I’m not making it clear enough. So, I will ask again. Remember Student, I’m asking for scripture from the Gospels that have the red letters where Jesus taught Universalism. Ok? Please do not give John12:32 for it has already been refuted and explained its real meaning. Surely John 12:32 is not the only scripture that you believe Jesus taught Universalism…there has to be many others right? Please show me. After all, if Universalism is true…Jesus must have taught it everywhere in the Gospels. I’m just asking you to show me where the master spoke of it. :smiley:

Aaron.
Do you not believe in Universalism? If yes, then you believe that everyone that has every lived will be saved eventually. If not in this life, in the afterlife. Correct? If I’m wrong on your position please let me know. If I’m correct, then you believe that All people will eventually find this Life that Jesus says only a FEW will find.

I’m not sure this is that hard, BA. Before Christ died, universalism wasn’t a reality, for there had been no universal sacrifice to atone for the sins of mankind. God’s sending of His son to die was His “yes” to humanity. His death conquered sin, and we are saved by His life. The Pauline letters that followed were a testament to that objective reality (all dead in Adam, all alive in Christ). Tell me where Christ’s work was limited? It was universal in scope, and to deny that is to deny the many Scripture passages teaching it.

Imagine it like this. You owed me $1 million, and in my last will & testament I agree to absolve you from that debt. But the language in the will reads that until I pass, you owe me $1 million. Would you wonder why I never mentioned this in my living years? Or would you merely accept the reality that prior to my death you owed me the money, but after my death you were released from the debt? In other words, is God not free to declare manking guiltless before Him? Did His death not achieve that? What was “finished”? Could Jesus have taught something that was not objectively true until He was crucified? You seem to be asking for answers to questions that are illogical.

False assumption there, BA. There is no good reason to assume that if UR is true, Jesus must have taught it everywhere in the Gospels. In fact, I deny that he was trying to get anyone to believe UR during his earthly ministry. I don’t think the hope of UR began to be proclaimed by as a truth to be believed until after Christ’s death, resurrection and ascension. :wink:

Now, here’s something for you to ponder, BA. Whether you believe in UR or not, it makes much more sense to think that the full revelation and proclamation of such a truth could be postponed by a loving God until a later time in redemptive history, since no one’s endless, post-mortem destiny could be jeopardized from their not believing it. However, if sinners have always been exposed to the possibility of being condemned to an irreversible state of endless suffering after death, and man’s avoidance of this nightmarish fate has always been conditioned on something he must do before he dies, then one would expect that a loving God would have made this unquestionably clear to all men, and warned them continuously of what was in store for them did they not repent - not merely in Jesus’ day, but from the moment man first sinned. But is this what we find? Not even close. There is not so much as a hint dropped that anyone, by their sin, had exposed themselves to an irreversible post-mortem punishment of endless duration. Both the OT and the NT are completely silent on this.

Hey Fire and Brimstone.

you said:Could Jesus have taught something that was not objectively true until He was crucified? You seem to be asking for answers to questions that are illogical.

Yes!!! Jesus knew he was going to the Cross to redeem mankind before he actually did it…in God’s eyes it was a done deal …God planned it before time ( Acts 4:27-28)…sooo you would think if Universalism were to be true… Jesus would at least speak of it in the Gospels somewhere, right? The answers are illogical because they don’t exist. You will not find one peep from Jesus about Universalism. The Pauline letters teach who we are in Christ, what Christ did, etc… it does not teach Universalism. I agree with you…Universalism was not a reality before Christ went to the cross…Universalism is not a reality after the Cross. Before or After the Cross, if Universalism were to be true it would be a reality anytime.

All in Adam, All in Christ is a simple explanation. You have to exercise your Faith in Jesus to be “in Christ”. That is taught throughout the New Testament. We are not all in Christ just because He died on the Cross. It is by your faith you are in Christ and a child of God. (Galatians 3:26)

Paul taught universalism more explicitly than Jesus; but this words of Jesus I already understood as a kid as a hint towards universalism:

the parable of the lost sheep also implies universalism

btw, your threads ‘bornagain’ are in the wrong section I think, you should rather post in the “Discussion Negative” section

Correct. I believe everyone who has ever lived will ultimately be saved from sin and death at the end of Christ’s reign, when all are made alive in Christ. Until this takes place, however, I believe that only few have been and will continue to be granted the faith by which we are reconciled to God.

No, your assumption is mistaken. The “life” of which Christ is speaking in Matt 7:13-14 is the blessing of a reconciled relationship with God during the age of the Messianic reign, prior to the resurrection of the dead (which is when Christ subjects all people to himself, delivers the kingdom back to God, and God becomes “all in all”). Only relatively few people have and will enjoy the blessing in view here, since it is for believers only, and God is not granting faith to all people in this life. But Paul tells us that God is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe. Thus, even if you die without believing the good news that Christ is the Savior of the world, God is still going to save you from sin and death, because he is still your Savior. But this salvation that all will receive will not be the “life” of which Christ spoke in Matt 7:13-14, since this “life” pertains only to the salvation which may be enjoyed during the age of the Messianic reign - which, again, ends with the resurrection of the dead.

Good point, sven. Hopefully Born Again will take notice.

Also this thread is duplicated and some replies are here and some there.

Aaron.

You have no proof that Jesus is talking about the Messianic reign. You are adding that to the text. The Life Jesus is speaking of is the Life that is proclaimed throughout the New Testament…ETERNAL LIFE… Jesus is the way…the truth… and the LIFE…what life? ETERNAL LIFE!!! Jesus is the resurrection and the LIFE… what life? ETERNAL LIFE!!! Jesus is the bread of LIFE. what life? ETERNAL LIFE!!!

aionian life - or the life of the age.

I guess you believe the atonement wasn’t sufficient for all men. What you instead insist on is a salvation by works, where human action saves, not the blood of Christ. There’s always something that must be done by man, and you’ve fallen into the trap of semi-pelagianism. I also don’t understand your assertion that you agree with me that universalism was not a reality before the cross (which I said) but that is not a reality after the cross. How are we agreeing here? Without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sin. So once there is shedding of blood, there IS remission of sin. In Christ, God said “yes” to humanity. But two things you do here when you make that claim that we are saved by human effort: 1) you insist man does something to earn his salvation, whichis massively unbiblical and 2) you’ve limit the time to acquire faith to this life (man’s fate is sealed at the death event), which has no biblical warrant. Please don’t use the Hebrews passage to “prove” it, which simply refutes reincarnation.

It’s clear from your posts that you simply desire to “convert” us, not engage in any kind of open minded dialogue. If that is true, why do you keep posting here? Is it your duty to warn us?

No, that’s not true. One doesn’t need to believe that one was in Adam for it to be true. It’s a statement of being - an ontological statement. Everyone is in Christ, everyone will be resurrected, everyone with confess Him as their Lord.

Christ came with two missions: To save the world and bring a sword against Israel. When one confuses or mixes the two missions - the Gospel suffers and becomes nonsensical. God’s wrath does not remain on anyone - it was completely poured out on that generation. If you don’t believe Matt 24:34 as true and accurate - then that disbelief is bound to cause problems with YOUR mission - bringing the Good News to the world.

Nice try BA, but as Jeff pointed out, the expression frequently translated as “eternal life” in English translations of the NT means “the life of the age,” or “life age-during.” Aionios is an adjective form of the Greek noun aion, and means “pertaining to, or belonging to, an age.” Like all adjectives, aionios cannot pertain to something other than its derivative noun. If the Greek noun aion means “age,” then the Greek adjective aionios (and any other derivative of aion) cannot pertain to something other or greater than an “age.” So, to what “age” does the “life of the age” pertain or belong? Answer: the age that was to begin whenever the age in which Christ and his disciples were living, ended (Matt 24:3). It is this then-future age that was referred to as “the age to come,” and associated with “the life of the age” (Mark 10:30; Luke 18:30; Heb 6:6; etc.). And what age was “to come” at this time? Answer: the age of the Messianic reign, which was to commence with Christ’s coming in his kingdom (Matt 16:28; Matt 24-25). So yes, the “life” of which Christ is speaking is short for “the life of the age,” which refers to the Messianic reign. :slight_smile:

RanRan.

Adam represented the human race when he fell and sinned against God. We inherited the spiritual death or sin nature when that happened. When Adam fell we all fell.( Romans 5:12) Take it up with Adam if you make it to Heaven. Everyone is not in Christ. Read the New Testament ranran you must believe to be in Christ. (Galatians 3:26) “For you are all sons of God THROUGH FAITH IN CHRIST’”. Notice it does not say that all are sons of God…you only become a son Of God by faith in Christ.

Jesus came to the world to destroy the works of the Devil and to save and reconcile the lost back to the father.(1 John 3:8) How is that done? (Galatians 3:26) “For you are all sons of God THROUGH FAITH IN CHRIST’”. Notice it does not say that all are sons of God…you only become a son Of God by faith in Christ.

Born Again, I’d be interested in getting your thoughts on this quote from a previous post:

Fire & brimstone.

The atonement was sufficient for all men. Salvation is not by works…by grace through your faith.( eph 2:8-9) (Galatians 3:26) By exercising you free will to believe in Jesus is not a work. God made a way for man to be redeemed through His Son Jesus. God has done his part by providing equal opportunity to be saved. Man has to receive this free gift of salvation by faith. ( John 1:12-13) 12But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: It is by your faith you are in Christ and a child of God. (Galatians 3:26)

For by grace are ye saved through faith - and that not of yourselves it is the gift of God lest any man should boast.

All who are resurrected will be “in Christ” by virtue of their being raised by him: “For as in Adam all die, so in Christ shall all be made alive” (1 Cor 15:22). Paul doesn’t say, “…so all who are in Christ shall be made alive.” He says, “…so in Christ shall all be made alive.” See the difference, BA? Though during this lifetime only few are granted the faith to believe on Christ and be reconciled to God during the age of the Messianic reign, ultimately all will be reconciled to God when Christ returns to subject all people to himself (1 Cor 15:28; Col 1:20).

Christ himself taught that all who will be raised from the dead will be children of God. In Luke 20:34-36, Christ declares:

“The children of this age marry and are given in marriage, but those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and to the resurrection from the dead neither marry nor are given in marriage, for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels ***and are children of God, being children of the resurrection.***”

Here we find that those who are “considered worthy” (kataxioo) to attain to the age of which Christ is speaking (i.e., the time period that begins when the dead are raised) can no longer die, for they are made “equal to the angels” (or “equal to angels in heaven,” as we read in Matthew and Mark’s accounts). But then Christ adds something not found in Matthew and Mark’s accounts: those who are to become “equal to angels” by being raised from the dead will also become “children of God, being children of the resurrection.” Thus we see that all who take part in the resurrection of the dead will become “children of God” by virtue of their having been thus raised; consequently, our becoming “children of God” by being raised from the dead excludes all conditions that we can meet in this lifetime. But who are those that Christ says will be “considered worthy” to attain to an immortal existence that is “equal to the angels?” Is it some of the dead, or all of the dead?

To answer this question, let us first take notice of the fact that Luke is the only synoptic writer to include this expression in his account of Christ’s dialogue with the Sadducees; it is not found in either Matthew or Mark. However, it is my view that the Synoptics do not contradict each other, but are harmonious accounts. And it is unlikely that Luke is revealing anything new in his account that isn’t being taught explicitly or implicitly in Matthew or Mark. But there is no indication in either Matthew or Mark that Christ understood the resurrection to be anything less than universal. And we know that the apostle Paul understood the resurrection to be universal: it embraces all who die in Adam, both “the just and the unjust” (1 Corinthians 15:21-22; Acts 24:15). How then are we to understand Christ’s words in Luke?

Notice that in Luke’s account, Christ has two categories of people in view: the “children of this age,” and “those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and to the resurrection from the dead.” But who are “the children of this age?” Answer: In this context, it is evident that the “children of this age” consist of those who “marry and are given into marriage.” Christ is simply describing the living men and women of this present existence (i.e., prior to the resurrection of the dead). It is this category of people whom Christ is contrasting with “those considered worthy to attain to that age and the resurrection from the dead.” Therefore, it is this group (i.e., living men and women) who are not “considered worthy” to attain to the resurrection of the dead. But why is this so? Answer: simply because they’re not dead yet, and one must be dead in order to take part in the resurrection of the dead.

Thus, we see that the only contrast Christ is making here is between those who are alive, and those who are dead. One’s faith or spiritual/moral character before death has absolutely nothing to do with whether or not one is “considered worthy” to be raised from the dead (again, Paul said both the just and the unjust will be raised; it is an unconditional blessing). Those who are “considered worthy” of the resurrection of the dead are simply those who are dead (since those who are still alive have no need of a resurrection; and all who will be found alive at the time of the resurrection of the dead will simply be “changed,” as Paul says in 1 Cor 15:51-52). But why does Christ describe the dead as being “worthy” of being raised? The word translated “considered worthy” (kataxioo) refers to the estimation in which one is held by another (in this case, by Jesus Christ), and need not carry the idea of virtue, merit or moral excellence. There is no reason to think that anyone’s being “considered worthy” to be raised from the dead has anything to do with something they did or didn’t do before they died. But in what sense does Christ consider the dead “worthy” of attaining to the resurrection of the dead? Answer: It is not due to their faith or virtue, but due to the simple fact that they are human beings who bear the image and likeness of God. They are also claimed by Christ as his rightful inheritance (Psalm 2:8; John 3:35; 13:3; Matthew 11:27; Luke 10:22; Heb 1:2), since he is Lord of all, both the dead and the living (Rom 14:9).

Thus, Christ taught that all who die will be “considered worthy to attain to that age and the resurrection of the dead,” and will thus become “children of God, being children of the resurrection.”

Aaron.

Children of the resurrection? Well, there are two different resurrections. One for the righteous, One for the wicked. (Dan 12:2) One for the righteous happens before the tribulation. The one for the wicked happens after the millennium reign of Christ …they are resurrected to be judged at the Great White Throne to be cast into the lake of fire. ( Rev 20:11-15).