Jesus said that if the miracles that had been done in Bethesda had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented in sackcloth and ashes, The God of Isaiah says that He knows the end from the beginning, John said that God knows all things, and David said He knew his words before they came out of his mouth, and Solomon said that God is everywhere.
So why did God send the angels to Sodom?
Why did He tell Abraham “Because the cry of Sodom and Gomorrah has come before me and their sins are very grievous, I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to their cry which has come before me; and if not, I will know”?
That’s from Genesis 18:20-21, and I know the standard answer is that this is an anthropomorphism, but why does the God of the Bible sometimes mus-represent Himself this way.
If He knows what the people of Tyre and Sidon would have done if they had seen the miracles done in Bethesda, if He knew Jeremiah before he was formed in his mother’s womb, and if He knew David’s thoughts before they came out of his mouth, surely He knew just how wicked the Sodomites were, and what they’d try to do to two angels they took as strangers in their city.
Why does He represent Himself to Abraham as having to go down and see?
Was Abraham’s understanding so far beneath David’s, Solomon’s, Jeremiah’s, and Isaiah’s (and ours today) that God had to speak to him as a child?
Has any ancient or modern commentator ever explained why God used these anthropomorphisms?