I’ve just been wondering about this lately. Not that I have any real proof, it’s just a sort of “thinking out loud” hypothesis, really.
We know that Paul talked about how he wished that everyone could be as he was (unmarried, and presumably celibate) for the sake of the kingdom/ gospel, being able to focus on that without distraction; although he clearly realized that wasn’t possible for everyone. We also know that Paul had a “thorn in the flesh, a messenger of satan”, sent to him by God in order to keep him humble. We don’t really know what this was, we only know that he asked God to remove it three times; for which God’s final answer was, “No, Paul; My grace is sufficient for you.”
We also know that Paul spoke against at least certain homosexual acts; but interestingly, neither he nor Jesus ever said a word directly against actually being homosexual.
I bring this up for a couple of reasons. One is that the debate over homosexuality rages on in the church and between the church and the rest of the world. We know that the scriptural evidence against homosexuality itself is a bit sketchy, even though at least certain acts are specifically spoken against (pederasty, for example). But interestingly, consistently across all cultures and people groups, there is about 6% of the population that is homosexual. One of our Sunday class leaders suggested that perhaps homosexuality was a misdirect (based on, say, the fall) of a God given ability to be celibate due to lack of attraction for the opposite sex; perhaps in order to be able to be set apart for the work of the kingdom without the usual distractions…
Anyway; is it possible that God “makes” people “homosexual” and they just misuse it?