I think it’s probably just two ways of looking at the same thing. IMO God is still angry with the wicked, and He will not settle for the wicked holding on to their wickedness. Yet angry or not, they’re still His, and He doesn’t need reconciling to THEM. They DO, however, need reconciling to Him. I don’t have a problem with Paidion’s pov at all except that I think chastisement can be looked at as penalty–not for revenge, but for correction. But that’s all semantics, I think.
If everyone’s sins are already forgiven in Christ, and everyone if already reconciled to God, then everyone will automatically be with God in the next life. No need for repentance or eliminating evil in our lives as far as our post mortem existence is concerned. That is classic universalism and the very reason I don’t accept the label “universalist.”
My belief is that no one is fully acceptable to God until wrongdoing is eliminated from their lives. Even those who have repented and submitted to Christ, still need correction to some degree. Salvation from wrongdoing is a process. The phrase “Everyone will be salted with fire” (Mark 9:49), seems to depict that process both in this life and the next. Fire purifies. God is easy to please, but hard to satisfy. He won’t be satisfied until sin is eliminated from the universe. That is why Jesus died.
For mine Neil THAT is a massive YES! And IMO the biblical data supports no other conclusion and so I see NO other reason to whittle that truth away other than it doesn’t fit one’s positional argumentation.
My position is the “the veil” in question in the day in which this was written i.e., Paul’s audience, was ‘OC Judaism’. Paul said “flesh and blood” (law and linage) would not imbibe of the fullness (inherit) of ‘the kingdom’. The truth is “Israel after the flesh” was trusting 100% in their own ‘Abrahamic heritage’ (flesh) and their own ‘law righteousness’ (blood)… Jesus said neither would save them Jn 8:33, 39; Jn 5:45.
BINGO !, but when one sins, does one sin deliberately ?, surely whenever you sin you do so (to varying degrees)’‘deliberately’’ otherwise you wouldn’t ‘‘sin’’
Here’s how most Baptists probably understand them.
Colossians 1:15-20 may be talking about “things,” not people. The earth and the heavens were affected by Adam’s sin. So God is going to make “all things” new. There will be a new heaven, and a new earth.
Romans 11:32 may be referring only to (Israelite?) believers in both cases. All (Israelite?) believers, before they believe, were consigned to disobedience, that He may have mercy on all of them. (I put Israelite in parentheses because they are in view in the context.)
1 Timothy 4:9-11 may simply be saying that Jesus is the only Savior available to the world. There is no other name by which we must be saved. He is THE Savior in a general since of the world, but specifically (“especially”) of believers. They are the ones that benefit from Jesus being Savior. I’m curious to know how you would understand the “especially” clause of this verse, if all are saved.
I’m not saying I necessarily agree with what I’ve just said but that is how we typically understand them.
Just for argument’s sake here’s how I understand these “things” from my inclusion position…
I would say this passage particularly has “people” in view as opposed to “things” in general. There is no specific word in the Greek denoting our English “things”. <ὅσος> hosos is variously translated and in this passage is rendered “whatever” and the english “things” attached to it, but it’s not actually there… so try reading that passage without the “things” and it is definitely referring to people; and thus the hierarchy accordingly.
The “they” or “their” in this passage is definitely disobedient “Israel” BUT the “you” makes no legitimate sense reading it as anything other than “gentiles” who are LIKEWISE in the passage.
Actually in this text it is “God” who is ‘Saviour’ – Jesus was the specific means thereof and thus known elsewhere accordingly as “the saviour” etc.
But that said… the “especially” just denotes the specialness of blessing KNOWN by believers. God is indeed the Saviour of “all men”. In similar phraseology Paul says this and it is as clearly equivalent what he means…
The distinction DOESN’T negate the inclusiveness, it simply clarifies it!
smalltownpastor wrote:1 Timothy 4:9-11 may simply be saying that Jesus is the only Savior available to the world. There is no other name by which we must be saved. He is THE Savior in a general since of the world, but specifically (“especially”) of believers. They are the ones that benefit from Jesus being Savior. I’m curious to know how you would understand the “especially” clause of this verse, if all are saved.
STP, On another forum a fellow named Homer when he saw verses like this would simply add the word “potential” to savior since CU Christian Universalism offended him. So he added “potential” which you are likewise doing except you describe it as “in a general sense” or “the only Savior available” yet what scripture simply says is that Jesus IS the Savior of the world. In other words it’s his God given title. Just like Jesus is not potential Lord or Lord in a general sense He is simply Lord.
Some people in their lame attempt to deny what’s plainly written even like to supply a few other words like “kinds of” as in, He “is the Savior of all kinds of men” to which I would duly note… “yeah, especially the kind that believe”.
To me, the bible speaks rarely of the afterlife. As Paidion has mentioned, we are not reconciled ( to reestablish friendship, to make compatible with) to God unless we give up our sins and come to live in God’s word. All sin and evil eventually lead to destruction/death. I believe what the writers of the New Testament are describing is the death of Israel as a nation. The war that was about to take place being the judgment. As Davo has mentioned, God is the savior of all men. Following His word and His spirit IS what saves us. I’d say that God works in many ways, but especially through believers.
Thanks for your kind reply. Davo and I don’t always agree, but I do very much agree with him on this. He gave the answer I would have given. (Thanks, Davo!)
I don’t think you can really take the “things” argument that seriously when you bear in mind verses 21 and 22, which talk about the reconciliation from being “hostile in mind, doing evil deeds”. That’s how reconciliation is painted literally the very next verse after the reconciliation of all “things”.
Pretty much what Davo said. I believe the word used for “especially” in this verse ALWAYS includes the former general group whenever it appears in the New Testament.