Amen, good sir!
Revival:
The Bible says he is the Father of every person, and says it directly in Malachi, and certainly in Paul’s statement that there is one God and Father of all.
John 1:12-13 - doesn’t refute the all-fatherhood of God, especially given that every knee shall bow, every tongue confess and everyone by the victorious will of God (nothing will defeat His will) will come to the knowledge of his Son, The Truth. Also, everyone has been given to Christ.
As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.
(John 17:2)
All have been given to him, that he should give life to all.
Galatians 3:26 - does not refute the all-fatherhood of God either. Malachi is quite plain and blunt, as well as Paul, in saying we all have one Father.
The Greek says; For ye all are sons of God through the faith in Christ.
And shortly after in Galatians 4:5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ.
(Galatians 4:5-7)
All are children of God, it is believers who receive the “adoption of sons”, which is nothing like adoption today, the theology of being adopted into God’s family the same way orphans are adopted into the family of a stranger is an inaccurate theology based on an inaccurate understanding of “adoption” as understood in ancient context; a context which is essentially that of a child (who is already part of the family) coming of age, wherein he becomes a co-ruler of the household.
Galatians has nothing to do with people becoming “children” of God, but rather it has everything to do with children of God coming of age through the faith in Christ. An image which is supported by Revelation’s imagery of ruling priestly kings.
Ephesians 2:19 - does not refute the all-fatherhood of God either. The immediate context is dealing with, namely, the Gentiles in contrast to the Hebrews as seen immediately by the context of the preceding verses;
That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
(Ephesians 2:12-15)
Also, I could (and will) interpret the theme of stranger-children directly back to the narrative presented by the parable of The Prodigal Son, and previous to that, Israel itself; strangers in a strange land coming home to the promised land and constantly in rebellion - but always welcomed back with open arms and royal-reinstatement. Children who have gone off in rebellion and become strangers in a strange land, feeding off the husk given to swine, children flung into poverty far away from home as exiles by their own causing. The prodigal son was still the father’s child, who was dead but now is now alive, once was lost but now is found.
1 Peter 1:23 - does not refute the all-fatherhood of God either. Being born again from above does not entail that one was not a child of God from the first. It entails that one is born again from above via Spirit, in contrast to their first Adamite birth via the flesh. I would likewise contend that using 1 Peter 1:23 as a proof-text against Malachi and Paul’s statements regarding the fatherhood of all, which are direct statements of God’s fatherhood of all, is a weak gambit.
1 John 5:1 - does not refute the all-fatherhood of God either. Firstly, 1 John 5:1 deals with the immediate context of loving your brother, as seen by the previous verse; 1 John 4:20-21
*If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love God whom he hath not seen? And this commandment have we from him, That he who loveth God love his brother also. *
Which then continues on to 1 John 5:1 *Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him. *
In short, the immediate context deals with the same issue presented by the questioner who asked Jesus “who is my neighbor?” when commanded to by Christ to “love thy neighbor”. The issue here, is “love thy brother” and the immediate answer to “who is my brother?” is “thy brother is whosoever believeth…”. The context is not a blanket statement negating the childship of humanity minus Christians, it is a statement dealing directly with the issue of familial issues in the Church, and love therein as referring to Christ’s commandment “Love one another as I have loved you”. 1 John 5:1 therefore, is not a statement against the childship of humanity, nor and especially is it a statement against the all-fatherhood of God. In context it is dealing with the issue of familial love between believers in the Church - which is all too often an issue in churches, especially now in these days.
Who ever loves God, loves his brother also, who ever believes that Jesus is the Christ, is born of God (is one of your brothers): and everyone that loves Him that begat (God, the begatter of the brother), loves him that is begotten of Him (loves the brother).
In other words, love your brother - he is your brother - if you don’t, then you don’t love God.
Now if you want to take seriously the usage of the verse to entail that not all are the children of the Father, then I shall insist that you take the rest of the verse along with it; that is to say, if the verse entails the negation of childship outside of believers, then the failure to love your brother is also a negation of the believer’s childship.
Also, in case it is still an issue;
Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.
(Luke 3:38)
The genealogy as presented by Luke is quite clear. Adam is considered the son of God, if only by virtue of having been created by God. Adam - the man who fell. Adam, the man by whom Sin and Death entered the world. Everyone who is born is an Adamite, either literally for figuratively. Everyone therefore is a descendent of Adam the son of God, a member of a familial line originating in God - which is undeniable in the face of Luke 3:38. By reason of this familial line, all of humanity are the children of God, in the same exact way that all Hebrews are the children of Abraham centuries after.
We are all descended from God, by virtue of being descended from Adam, who was descended from God. Especially we are descended from God by virtue of the last Adam (Christ) who is The Son of God. By Adam we are children of God, by Christ we are Sons and Daughters of God.
No I haven’t. You’re merely asserting that I did. Prove it. Back it up.
Every child must come of age and become sons.
But just in case you’ve decided that God will not in fact, lovingly correct all humanity; I must appeal to the fact that God will not endure sin to last forever, God is justice, therefore he must correct all sin wherever it is found, whether it be in sinner or saint. He must, and will, correct it all. He will get rid of it, end it; put it away from the sinner and saint and from His presence. If sin continues forever, then God must endure sin forever; and by enduring it forever and not correcting it wherever it is found, God will have failed to put an end to it.
God hates sin, God will not allow sin to continue ceaselessly. Therefore God will correct it, as per his nature as Justice; wherever it is found, whenever it is found.