Hi Aaron,
You wrote:
You seem to be assuming that the “day of judgment” referred to by Jesus in Matt 12:36-37 and the “day” referred to by Paul in Acts 17:30-31 is the “last day” spoken of in John 12:48. But I don’t think it’s necessary to understand these “days” as identical. Surely you believe there have been other days in the past in which people have been judged by God (e.g., Gen 3:16-19; 4:10-13; 6:5; 7:11-24; 19:24-25; Ex 14:21-31; Num 16:28-35; Psalm 9:16; Lam 1:8; 2:22; Eze 13:5; 21:30; 22:31; John 12:31; Rom 5:16). According to Premillennialism, Christ’s coming will take place before he begins to reign for a thousand years. But the time of great tribulation and wrath that premillennialists believe will lead up to and culminate in the pre-millennial coming of Christ is referred to as a “day” of judgment as well (Isaiah 2:12-21; 13:6-11; Ezekiel 30:1-8; Joel 1:13-16; 2:1-11, 23-32; 3:14-18; Zeph 1:7-18; 2:1-3; Zech 14:1-11; Mal 4:1-5; Acts 2:20; Matt 24:36-39; 1 Thess 5:1-11; Rev 3:10-11; 6:15-17; cf. 2 Thess 2:1-4). Although I’m not a premillennialist (because I don’t believe in a literal thousand years - The “Thousand Years” of Revelation 20), it’s my view that the “day of the Lord” referred to in the above verses refers to the period of time leading up to and culminating with Christ’s coming, and is the same “day” of judgment referred to by Christ in Matt 12:36-37 (and is thus not a “post-millennial” judgment, as you seem to think).
I didn’t ask you about your eschatological position because I wanted to debate preterism. I asked because (assuming you believe Christ’s “second coming” is before his millennial reign) I think there might be some inconsistencies in your view. It seems to be your position that the “last day” of which Christ speaks in John 12:48 refers to a period of time following the millennial reign of Christ, when you think the “Great White Throne Judgment” will take place. But if you’re a premillennialist, don’t you believe that the resurrection of born-again believers will take place at Christ’s coming (1 Cor 15:23), which will be sometime before the millennial reign of Christ (whether pre-trib, mid-trib or post-trib)? That is, isn’t it your view that the “rapture” takes place sometime before the start of the millennium? But if that’s the case, then I’m not sure how (according to your view) the “last day” of John 12:48 can refer to a post-millennial judgment. Because in John 6 (vv. 40, 44, and 54) Christ declares that those who believe on him will be raised up on the “last day.” So if the judgment of Rev 20:11-15 takes place on the “last day,” then either this judgment takes place before the millennium (when believers will be made alive in Christ) or those who believe on Christ won’t be made alive in Christ until after the millennium (when you believe the judgment of Rev 20 takes place). If I’ve misunderstood your position, then I apologize and would appreciate clarification. But if not, then how is this not an inconsistency in your eschatological position?
This is simply referring to every man who, in John’s vision, was seen as being present at this judgment of “the dead.” To assume that this is “all of humanity” is, I think, to beg the question.
Do you believe everyone present at this judgment is physically dead? Or do you think only some are physically dead and others aren’t?
In other words, Paul was wrong. 
Notice that Paul does not say, “For as in Adam all die, so also all in Christ shall be made alive,” but rather, “…so also in Christ shall all be made alive.” Whereas the former expression could perhaps be construed in a more inclusive sense (i.e., if one put a comma after “all” and “Christ”), the latter cannot be understood to include less than all who die in Adam, because the “all” who are to be made alive in Christ are the same “all” who die in Adam. This, of course, would include both those who are just and those who are unjust (Acts 24:15). So unless everyone who dies in Adam will ultimately be added to the book of life, your view that one’s name being found in the book of life determines whether one will be made alive in Christ is mistaken.
Do you think death will be abolished after the millennial reign for believers only, unbelievers only, both or neither?
If death will be abolished after the millennial reign for born-again believers, then it must be your view that born-again believers are not going to be raised immortal in the twinkling of an eye at Christ’s coming before the millennial reign, and that there is no pre-trib (or mid-trib/post-trib) rapture of born-again believers before the millennium. Is this your view?
If death will be abolished after the millennial reign for those who died as unbelievers (or believers and unbelievers), then I see no reason why everything else John says in v. 4 shouldn’t apply to them as well. And if that’s the case, then it means God is going to wipe away every tear from the eyes of those who died in unbelief, and that these people shall never mourn, cry or be in pain anymore.
Then the “great day” of the wrath of God and of the Lamb (v. 17) refers to a judgment during the tribulation period. Is this your view?
