The Evangelical Universalist Forum

Challenge

Hi Aaron,

You wrote:

You seem to be assuming that the “day of judgment” referred to by Jesus in Matt 12:36-37 and the “day” referred to by Paul in Acts 17:30-31 is the “last day” spoken of in John 12:48. But I don’t think it’s necessary to understand these “days” as identical. Surely you believe there have been other days in the past in which people have been judged by God (e.g., Gen 3:16-19; 4:10-13; 6:5; 7:11-24; 19:24-25; Ex 14:21-31; Num 16:28-35; Psalm 9:16; Lam 1:8; 2:22; Eze 13:5; 21:30; 22:31; John 12:31; Rom 5:16). According to Premillennialism, Christ’s coming will take place before he begins to reign for a thousand years. But the time of great tribulation and wrath that premillennialists believe will lead up to and culminate in the pre-millennial coming of Christ is referred to as a “day” of judgment as well (Isaiah 2:12-21; 13:6-11; Ezekiel 30:1-8; Joel 1:13-16; 2:1-11, 23-32; 3:14-18; Zeph 1:7-18; 2:1-3; Zech 14:1-11; Mal 4:1-5; Acts 2:20; Matt 24:36-39; 1 Thess 5:1-11; Rev 3:10-11; 6:15-17; cf. 2 Thess 2:1-4). Although I’m not a premillennialist (because I don’t believe in a literal thousand years - The “Thousand Years” of Revelation 20), it’s my view that the “day of the Lord” referred to in the above verses refers to the period of time leading up to and culminating with Christ’s coming, and is the same “day” of judgment referred to by Christ in Matt 12:36-37 (and is thus not a “post-millennial” judgment, as you seem to think).

I didn’t ask you about your eschatological position because I wanted to debate preterism. I asked because (assuming you believe Christ’s “second coming” is before his millennial reign) I think there might be some inconsistencies in your view. It seems to be your position that the “last day” of which Christ speaks in John 12:48 refers to a period of time following the millennial reign of Christ, when you think the “Great White Throne Judgment” will take place. But if you’re a premillennialist, don’t you believe that the resurrection of born-again believers will take place at Christ’s coming (1 Cor 15:23), which will be sometime before the millennial reign of Christ (whether pre-trib, mid-trib or post-trib)? That is, isn’t it your view that the “rapture” takes place sometime before the start of the millennium? But if that’s the case, then I’m not sure how (according to your view) the “last day” of John 12:48 can refer to a post-millennial judgment. Because in John 6 (vv. 40, 44, and 54) Christ declares that those who believe on him will be raised up on the “last day.” So if the judgment of Rev 20:11-15 takes place on the “last day,” then either this judgment takes place before the millennium (when believers will be made alive in Christ) or those who believe on Christ won’t be made alive in Christ until after the millennium (when you believe the judgment of Rev 20 takes place). If I’ve misunderstood your position, then I apologize and would appreciate clarification. But if not, then how is this not an inconsistency in your eschatological position?

This is simply referring to every man who, in John’s vision, was seen as being present at this judgment of “the dead.” To assume that this is “all of humanity” is, I think, to beg the question.

Do you believe everyone present at this judgment is physically dead? Or do you think only some are physically dead and others aren’t?

In other words, Paul was wrong. :wink: Notice that Paul does not say, “For as in Adam all die, so also all in Christ shall be made alive,” but rather, “…so also in Christ shall all be made alive.” Whereas the former expression could perhaps be construed in a more inclusive sense (i.e., if one put a comma after “all” and “Christ”), the latter cannot be understood to include less than all who die in Adam, because the “all” who are to be made alive in Christ are the same “all” who die in Adam. This, of course, would include both those who are just and those who are unjust (Acts 24:15). So unless everyone who dies in Adam will ultimately be added to the book of life, your view that one’s name being found in the book of life determines whether one will be made alive in Christ is mistaken.

Do you think death will be abolished after the millennial reign for believers only, unbelievers only, both or neither?

If death will be abolished after the millennial reign for born-again believers, then it must be your view that born-again believers are not going to be raised immortal in the twinkling of an eye at Christ’s coming before the millennial reign, and that there is no pre-trib (or mid-trib/post-trib) rapture of born-again believers before the millennium. Is this your view?

If death will be abolished after the millennial reign for those who died as unbelievers (or believers and unbelievers), then I see no reason why everything else John says in v. 4 shouldn’t apply to them as well. And if that’s the case, then it means God is going to wipe away every tear from the eyes of those who died in unbelief, and that these people shall never mourn, cry or be in pain anymore.

Then the “great day” of the wrath of God and of the Lamb (v. 17) refers to a judgment during the tribulation period. Is this your view?

Ok, we agree to disagree. No disrespect, but I’m not going to put in the time and effort to support my position of the Millennial reign of Christ, the tribulation, etc only to have it rejected due to your preterist tunnel vision. I would really like to stick to UR in any future discussion with you. God bless.

and believe God raised him form the dead. Have you done this?

Colossians 1:23 is the answer to be presented to God… holy, unblameable, and unreproveable.

Revival, how long does damnation last?

Hi Aaron,

You wrote:

Everything I said in my response is, I think, very much related to this particular thread, so I can’t help but see your response as a cop-out (and I’m probably not the only one). My response isn’t about preterism. I wasn’t trying to argue specifically for my brand of preterism or start a preterism vs. futurism debate. If you’ve read my response, you should know that. I was simply pointing out what I see as inconsistencies in your position, which I think undermine your objections to UR. I even asked you for clarification if I was mistaken as to what exactly you believed. You can refuse to respond to what I wrote if you want, but just know that any one of us could have responded to your “Challenge” thread (or any other thread started by you) by saying, “No disrespect, but I’m not going to put in the time and effort to support my position of UR only to have it rejected due to your ECT tunnel vision.” But did we do that? No, we took your challenges seriously and have tried to meet your objections with scriptural arguments. And that’s all I’m trying to do. The fact that my response to your challenge involves (at least in part) a closer look at your particular eschatological position should be irrelevant, because I wouldn’t be writing anything in response to you if I wasn’t trying to defend the doctrine of UR against your view.

Cop-out? Not at all, I just don’t have any desire to debate your position in preterism…and it looked like it was leading up to that with the shotgun questions. Fair enough, I will get back at you with your questions but it may take some time.

That’s fine! No rush. :slight_smile:

Well considering this resurrection is unto the judgment recorded in Rev 20:11-15…I guess it will last as long until you show scripture support of everyone thrown into the lake of fire getting out and having their names found recorded in the book of life.

Well no one gets OUT of the Lake of Fire because it’s not a real lake. :slight_smile: It’s just the presence of God. God is a consuming fire…

Why would anyone want to escape Eternal Fire? Fire is energy. Energy is creative potentiality. God’s holy fire flows outwards into the darkness, filling it with every good thing.

Fire doesn’t hurt because it’s hot. It hurts because we’re cold.

Your “requirement” for a scripture that says people get out of the lake of fire is a strawman. If the scripture tell us that, in the end all will be redeemed, then it has provided that very answer without saying it the way you are requiring it. For example, in Colossians 1:15 ff we learn that “all things” were created by, for, and through Christ. Paul is exhaustive in his explanation of what “all things” means and it turns out that he really does mean “all things”. Then he says an amazing thing in verse 19ff, he tells us that the same “all things” will be “reconciled” to Him through Christ making peace through the blood of his cross.

Reconcile, peace, blood, cross. All things. Paul tells us in clear, straightforward terms that God reconciles his entire creation to himself through Christ! You show me a person that spends an eternity in hell and you are showing me a person who is NOT reconciled to God through Christ, having peace with him through the blood of his cross. Obviously, this punishment doesn’t last forever, otherwise Paul would be lying to us. Besides, God tells us many times in scripture that he doesn’t reject or cast off anyone forever or remain angry at man forever. It’s not in his nature or character.

Please refrain from evangelising me Revival - it didn’t work as Aaron37 and it didn’t work as Born Again. :wink:

Interesting… Internet forum member “reincarnation”! :laughing:

Not evangelizing, just asking a simple question relative to your post. You were talking about the OT jubilee. I’m asking you… have you done this standard required by God to receive the (OT jubilee) salvation through Jesus? If not, why not?

Hi dirtboy
Why is asking for scripture support to substantiate the position UR has to take ( people actually getting out of the lake of fire) a strawman? If I were teaching something to be true would you not require me to give you actual scripture support to substantiate my position? Is it possible that your interpretation of scripture that you believe support UR be wrong?

With respect, We are having a literary discussion about the meaning of text in parts of the Bible - asking me if I have received salvation by your definition and then sayng ‘if not why not’ is evangelism. It is irrelevant to the literary discussion I am having with you. Unless of course I am not qualified to discuss this (as you used to insist).

You won’t discuss Aaron’s preterism in posts I will not discuss my relationship or otherwise with God - it’s none of your business.

The only relevant question is ‘does the Bible teach that a hypothetical person who requires the Jubilee meets those requirements you lay down for salvation when every knee bows and every tongue confesses that Christ is Lord to the glory of God’ I think the Bible teaches yes - that doesn’t mean I think the Bible is true - it doesn’t mean I think it’s not true (all of that is irrelevant).

Fair enough, didn’t mean to offend you, Jeff. But I wasn’t asking you if you received salvation by “my definition” but God’s standard recorded in his word relative to your belief in the OT jubilee. I’m enjoying our conversation. God bless.

Btw, Philippians 2:10-11 is not a confession unto salvation but an act of submission and acknowledging the name that is above every name in verse 9 after God exalted Jesus and raised form the dead. When do you suppose Phil 2:10-11 will actually happen?

My point is that you shouldn’t be asking me at all about it that’s all. This isn’t a thread about my standing with God it’s just about what concepts the words in the Bible seem to support. I understand you wanting to know on a personal level, I just see it as irrelevant to this discussion.

I understand, point taken. Btw, Philippians 2:10-11 is not a confession unto salvation but an act of submission and acknowledging the authority in the name that is above every name in verse 9 after God exalted Jesus and raised from the dead. When do you suppose Phil 2:10-11 will actually happen?

That’s better :wink: I shall consider and reply when I get some time.

Cheers.